The correct answer is: (B) After finding out about his salary raise, Jay and a few colleagues go out for a quick dinner after work

Explanation:
An informal gathering is characterized by spontaneity, casualness, and a lack of formal planning or structure. Let’s analyze the options:

(A) Debating club meets on the first Sunday morning of every month: This is a formal, scheduled event that happens regularly, so it does not qualify as an informal gathering.
(B) After finding out about his salary raise, Jay and a few colleagues go out for a quick dinner after work: This is the best example of an informal gathering because it is spontaneous, casual, and not pre-planned.
(C) Meena sends out 10 invitations for a bachelorette party she is giving for her elder sister: Sending invitations and planning a party makes this a formal event, not an informal gathering.
(D) Whenever she eats at a Chinese restaurant, Roop seems to run into Dibya: This is a coincidence, not a gathering, so it does not fit the definition of an informal gathering.

Thus, option (B) is the correct answer.

The correct answer is: (A) A specialized language of a particular group of people

Explanation:
The word “jargon” refers to the specialized or technical language used by a specific group, profession, or field. It often includes terms and expressions that may not be easily understood by those outside the group. For example, medical jargon or legal jargon consists of terms specific to those professions.

The correct answer is: (D) 2004

Explanation:
Facebook was launched on February 4, 2004, by Mark Zuckerberg along with his college roommates Eduardo Saverin, Andrew McCollum, Dustin Moskovitz, and Chris Hughes. Initially, it was created as a social networking platform for Harvard University students but later expanded to other universities and eventually to the general public.

The correct answer is (D) 6.

Explanation:

To solve this problem, we need to identify all pairs of letters in the word “CASTRAPHONE” that have as many letters between them in the word as they do in the English alphabet.

First, let’s understand the condition: For any pair of letters, the number of letters between them in the word should be equal to the number of letters between them in the alphabet.

1. List the letters with their positions in the word and their positions in the alphabet:

Position (i) | Letter (L_i) | Alphabet Position (A_i)
1 | C | 3
2 | A | 1
3 | S | 19
4 | T | 20
5 | R | 18
6 | A | 1
7 | P | 16
8 | H | 8
9 | O | 15
10 | N | 14
11 | E | 5

2. Compare each pair of letters:

For each pair (i, j) where i < j, calculate:
– The number of letters between them in the word: delta_i_j = j – i
– The number of letters between them in the alphabet: delta_A_i_j = |A_i – A_j|

The pair satisfies the condition if delta_i_j = delta_A_i_j.

3. Identify the valid pairs:

Following this method, we find the following pairs satisfy the condition:
– Positions 3 and 4 (S and T)
– Positions 4 and 9 (T and O)
– Positions 4 and 10 (T and N)
– Positions 5 and 7 (R and P)
– Positions 8 and 11 (H and E)
– Positions 9 and 10 (O and N)

4. Count the valid pairs:

There are 6 pairs that meet the condition. Answer: 6

The correct answer is (D) None of the above

Explanation:

Let’s analyze the statements and the options provided:

1. All Ps are Qs.
2. Some Qs are Rs.

Option A: All Ps are Rs

– Analysis: Since all Ps are Qs and some Qs are Rs, it doesn’t necessarily mean that all Ps are Rs. The “some Qs” that are Rs might not include any Ps.
– Conclusion: This does not have to be true.

Option B: Some Ps are Rs

– Analysis: While all Ps are Qs and some Qs are Rs, there’s no guarantee that the “some Qs” that are Rs overlap with Ps. It’s possible that none of the Ps are Rs.
– Conclusion: This does not have to be true.

Option C: No Ps are Rs

– Analysis: This is also not necessarily true. It’s possible that some Ps could be Rs if the overlapping “Qs” that are Rs include some Ps.
– Conclusion: This does not have to be true.

Option D: None of the above

– Conclusion: Since none of the options A, B, or C must necessarily be true based on the given statements, this is the correct choice.

Answer: (D) None of the above

Solution/Explanation

70. According to the passage, which of the following can be taken as the main reason for the modification of earth’s system?
(A) Technology
(B) Increasing population
(C) Lack of an integrated approach
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (B) Increasing population

Explanation: The passage directly states that “the rapidly expanding human population has greatly modified the earth’s ecosystem to meet their increased requirements.” This clearly identifies population growth as the main driver of ecosystem modifications, not technology or lack of integrated approach.

71. Which of the following can be considered as the most suitable title for the passage?
(A) Modification of our ecosystem
(B) Our natural resources
(C) Harmful effect of increase in human population
(D) Human interference in our ecosystem

Correct Answer: (D) Human interference in our ecosystem

Explanation: The passage comprehensively discusses how humans have interfered with ecosystems – both the modifications made and their various consequences (positive and negative). While modification is discussed, the broader theme of human interference and its impacts makes (D) the most suitable title.

72. Expanding human population has an adverse effect on
(i) spiritual fulfilment
(ii) availability of potable freshwater
(iii) employment
(iv) biodiversity
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(A) (i), (ii), (iii) only
(B) (ii), (iii), (iv) only
(C) (ii) and (iv) only
(D) All of the above

Correct Answer: (C) (ii) and (iv) only

Explanation: From the passage, we can directly verify two adverse effects:
– Freshwater availability (ii) is mentioned when discussing how potable freshwater can only be artificially produced at great cost
– Biodiversity (iv) is explicitly mentioned as being negatively impacted by efforts to increase food and fiber production
The passage does not mention any impacts on employment (iii) or spiritual fulfillment (i).

73. The passage mentions that ‘some people have actually been harmed by these changes’. It indicates towards
(A) inequitable distribution of benefits
(B) decrease in the ability of some ecosystems to provide clean water, regulate flooding and support biodiversity
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Neither (A) nor (B)

Correct Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)

Explanation: The passage supports both statements:
– It explicitly states “The benefits have not been equally distributed. Some people have actually been harmed by these changes” (supporting A)
– It also mentions that ecosystem changes have decreased abilities to “provide clean water, regulate flooding and support biodiversity” (supporting B)
Therefore, both factors contribute to the harm mentioned in the passage.

74. Which of the following is correct in the context of the passage?
(A) The rapid expansion of population has affected some people adversely
(B) Sufficient efforts have not been made to increase the production of food and fibre
(C) In short term, some people may be harmed, but in long term, everyone will benefit from modifications in earth’s ecosystem
(D) None of the above

Correct Answer: (A) The rapid expansion of population has affected some people adversely

Explanation: This answer is directly supported by the passage’s statement that benefits have not been equally distributed and some people have been harmed by the changes. Options (B) and (C) present conclusions not supported by the passage’s content, while (A) accurately reflects what’s stated.

75. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:
(i) It is imperative to modify the earth’s ecosystem for the well-being of mankind.
(ii) Technology can never replace all the goods and services provided by ecosystems.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)

Correct Answer: (B) Only (ii)

Explanation: The passage states that most ecosystem benefits are “either irreplaceable or the technology necessary to replace them is prohibitively expensive,” supporting statement (ii). However, statement (i) is not supported by the passage – while it describes modifications that have occurred, it doesn’t suggest these modifications are imperative or necessary for human well-being. In fact, it points out both benefits and drawbacks of such modifications.

Solution/Explanation

60. Which country has a large proportion of twin population?
(A) Nigeria
(B) USA
(C) France
(D) UAE
Correct Answer: (A) Nigeria
Explanation: According to the passage, Nigeria has a notably high proportion of twins, especially among the Yoruba people where one in 22 births produce twins, which is described as “a much higher incidence than anywhere else in the world.”

61. What is the reason of the high rate of twins produced by the Yoruba people?
(A) Culture
(B) Marital status
(C) Eating habits
(D) Dance and music
Correct Answer: (C) Eating habits
Explanation: The passage mentions that this high rate has been “attributed to the eating of yams,” though it notes that this theory is disputed.

62. Biomedical scientists conduct experiments in these events to collect which evidence?
(A) Law and legal issues
(B) Nature vs nurture debate
(C) Climate change
(D) LGBTQ+ rights
Correct Answer: (B) Nature vs nurture debate
Explanation: The passage clearly states that scientists study twins to collect evidence for the nature versus nurture debate, examining how much behavior is hereditary versus environmentally conditioned.

63. Identical Twins who look the same are different in which aspect?
(A) Clothes
(B) Personalities
(C) Imaging systems
(D) Complexion
Correct Answer: (B) Personalities
Explanation: The passage states right at the beginning that while identical twins look the same, “they have different personalities and abilities.”

64. How is the difference between the two identical twins helpful to authors?
(A) Provide a story
(B) Provide a character
(C) Provide a plot twist
(D) Provide romance
Correct Answer: (C) Provide a plot twist
Explanation: The passage directly states that “Literature and detective stories depend upon them for providing a plot twist or a mystery.”

65. Which difference in two identical twins is determined by external factors?
(A) Hair colour
(B) Fingerprints
(C) Smile
(D) Eyes
Correct Answer: (B) Fingerprints
Explanation: The passage explicitly mentions that twins “do not have the same fingerprints, which are believed to be determined by environmental factors.”

66. What percent of identical twins develop their own secret language?
(A) Can’t say
(B) 30 percent
(C) 50 percent
(D) All of the above
Correct Answer: (C) 50 percent
Explanation: The passage directly states “in fifty percent of cases, they even develop their own secret language.”

67. When one twin is able to share the physical or mental pain without even being communicated, it is known as:
(A) intuition
(B) crisis telepathy
(C) vibration
(D) teleportation
Correct Answer: (B) crisis telepathy
Explanation: The passage explicitly states that when a twin shares the physical or mental pain of the other, it is known as ‘crisis telepathy’.

68. What do we call the twins, who share everything before birth?
(A) Monozygotic
(B) Fraternal
(C) Dizygotic
(D) Monoamniotic
Correct Answer: (A) Monozygotic
Explanation: The passage specifically refers to “Monozygotic twins – who share everything before birth.”

69. Which festival has become one of the world’s largest gathering of twins?
(A) Ohio
(B) Twins
(C) The Twin Days
(D) Twinsburg
Correct Answer: (C) The Twin Days
Explanation: According to the passage, “The Twins Days festival is a three-day event… that has become one of the world’s largest gatherings of twins.”

The correct answer is (C) Either Statement (i) or Statement (ii) is sufficient

Explanation:

Statement (i): The first Sunday of that month fell on the 5th.

– Given: First Sunday is July 5th.
– Calculations:
– Sundays in July 2018: 5th, 12th, 19th, 26th.
– Since July has 31 days, the next Sunday after the 26th would be August 2nd, which is outside July.
– Conclusion: The last Sunday of July 2018 is July 26th.

Statement (i) alone is sufficient to determine the date of the last Sunday.

Statement (ii): The last day of that month was Friday.

– Given: July 31st is a Friday.
– Determining the day of the week for July 1st:
– July has 31 days.
– If July 31st is Friday, then:
– July 31: Friday
– July 30: Thursday
– July 29: Wednesday
– …
– July 1: Wednesday (since 31 – 30 = 1; 30 days before July 31st is July 1st)
– Calculating Sundays:
– Since July 1st is a Wednesday, the first Sunday falls on July 5th.
– Sundays in July 2018: 5th, 12th, 19th, 26th.
– Conclusion: The last Sunday of July 2018 is July 26th.

Statement (ii) alone is also sufficient to determine the date of the last Sunday.

Combined Conclusion:

– Both statements individually lead us to conclude that the last Sunday of July 2018 was July 26th.
– Therefore, either statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Correct Answer: (C) Either Statement (i) or Statement (ii) is sufficient

The correct answer is (C) Either Statement (i) or Statement (ii) is sufficient.

Explanation:

To determine Mr. X’s rank from the last in his class, let’s analyze the information provided by each statement individually.

Given:
– Mr. X’s rank from the top: 18th
– Total number of students in the class: N (unknown)
– Mr. X’s rank from the last: N – 18 + 1 = N – 17

We need to find the value of N to determine Mr. X’s rank from the last.

Statement (i): There are 47 students in the class.

– If N = 47, then Mr. X’s rank from the last is:
47 – 17 = 30
– Conclusion: This statement directly provides the total number of students, allowing us to determine Mr. X’s rank from the last.

Statement (ii): Mr. Y ranks 10th from the top and 38th from the last.

– Let’s denote:
– Mr. Y’s rank from the top: 10th
– Mr. Y’s rank from the last: 38th

Using the relationship between ranks:
Total students = Rank from top + Rank from last – 1
N = 10 + 38 – 1 = 47

With N = 47, Mr. X’s rank from the last is:
47 – 17 = 30

Conclusion: This statement also allows us to determine the total number of students, thereby finding Mr. X’s rank from the last.

Final Analysis:
– Statement (i) alone is sufficient.
– Statement (ii) alone is also sufficient.
– Therefore, either statement alone provides enough information to answer the question.

Answer: (C) Either Statement (i) or Statement (ii) is sufficient

The correct answer is (D) 6.

Explanation:

Divisibility Rule for 11:

A number is divisible by 11 if the difference between the sum of the digits in the odd positions and the sum of the digits in the even positions is either 0 or a multiple of 11.

Applying the Rule to K35624:

Let’s assign positions to each digit from left to right:

Position: 1 2 3 4 5 6
Digit: K 3 5 6 2 4

1. Sum of digits in odd positions (1, 3, 5):
Sum_odd = K + 5 + 2 = K + 7

2. Sum of digits in even positions (2, 4, 6):
Sum_even = 3 + 6 + 4 = 13

3. Calculate the difference:
Difference = Sum_odd – Sum_even = (K + 7) – 13 = K – 6

For the number to be divisible by 11:
K – 6 ≡ 0 (mod 11)
K – 6 = 0 or K – 6 = ±11

Since K is a single digit (0-9):
K – 6 = 0 implies K = 6
Other possibilities (K = 17 or K = -5) are not valid as K must be a single digit.

Answer: (D) 6