The correct answer is Option B: 1 and 4.

Explanation:

1. Statement (1) is correct: The 70th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, included the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry in the Electoral College for electing the President of India.

2. Statement (2) is incorrect: The value of votes in the Electoral College is based on the population of the 1971 Census as per the 42nd Constitutional Amendment. However, this census-based value was frozen by the 84th Constitutional Amendment until at least 2026, preventing the use of any subsequent census, including the 2011 Census.

3. Statement (3) is incorrect: The 84th Constitutional Amendment did not fix the value of votes based on the 2011 Census; it continued the use of the 1971 Census for determining the value of votes.

4. Statement (4) is correct: The inclusion of the MLAs from the NCT of Delhi and Puducherry in the Electoral College came into effect on June 1, 1993.

Thus, 1 and 4 are correct statements, making b) the right option.

The correct answer is b) 2 and 3.

Explanation:

1. The doctrine of the basic structure of the Constitution was not first propounded in the Shankari Prasad Vs Union of India case. It was first propounded in the Kesavananda Bharati Vs State of Kerala case in 1973.

2. In the Sajjan Singh Vs State of Rajasthan case, the Supreme Court held that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution, including fundamental rights.

3. In the Golaknath Vs State of Punjab case, the Supreme Court ruled that Article 368 only lays down the procedure to amend the Constitution but does not give Parliament the absolute power to amend any part of the Constitution, particularly fundamental rights.

4. In the Waman Rao Vs Union of India case, the Supreme Court did not set aside the basic structure doctrine; rather, it reaffirmed it.

The correct answer is: (B) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

Non-Constitutional Bodies in India are those not established by the Constitution but created by executive orders or legislation.

1. Tribunals: They can be both constitutional (like the Administrative Tribunals under Article 323A) and non-constitutional depending on their establishment.
2. National Investigation Agency (NIA): This is a statutory body established by the NIA Act, 2008, and is a non-constitutional body.
3. Competition Commission of India (CCI): This is a statutory body established under the Competition Act, 2002, and is a non-constitutional body.
4. Law Commission of India: This is an advisory body established by an executive order, making it a non-constitutional body.
5. National Commission for Scheduled Tribes (NCST): This is a constitutional body established under Article 338A.
6. Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG): This is a constitutional body established under Article 148.

The correct answer is (B) 2, 3, and 4. These are all non-constitutional bodies.

The correct answer is:  Option D.

Explanation:

Option D: The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction over the matters in the Union List.
This statement is not correct. The Supreme Court has jurisdiction over all constitutional matters, including those related to the Union List. It can interpret laws made by Parliament on subjects in the Union List and decide disputes arising out of them.

The correct answer is Option B: 3, 4, 6, and 7.

Explanation:

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, also known as the “Mini-Constitution,” brought significant changes to the Indian Constitution.

1. Article 39(A): It directs the State to provide free legal aid to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
2. Article 43(A): It deals with the participation of workers in the management of industries.
3. Article 48(A): It mandates the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife.
4. Article 144(A): It introduced provisions related to the binding nature of the decisions of the Supreme Court on all authorities.
Source: Forty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India – Wikipedia

The correct answer is: b) 2 and 3

Explanation: 

1) Schedule II: This schedule deals with the emoluments (salaries, allowances, etc.) of constitutional authorities such as the President, Governors, Judges, and the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India. 

2) Schedule III: This schedule contains the forms of oaths and affirmations for various constitutional posts, not the “Allocation of Seats in Council of States.”

3) Schedule VI: This schedule deals with the administration and control of tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, not “Scheduled Areas.” Scheduled Areas are covered under Schedule V. Hence, this matching is incorrect.

4) Schedule IX: This schedule contains laws that are protected from judicial review (originally introduced by the First Amendment to the Constitution in 1951). Therefore, the matching “First Amendment of Indian Constitution” is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is Option B: 2 and 3.

The correct answer is: none of the options is correct.

Explanation:

1. Elections to the Constituent Assembly:
– The elections were actually held in December 1946, not in July-August 1946. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

2. Seats won by the Indian National Congress:
– The Indian National Congress indeed won 208 seats. This statement is correct.

3. Seats won by the Muslim League:
– The Muslim League won 73 seats, which is correctly stated in the question. Therefore, statement 3 is also correct.

4. Seats allocated to Princely States:
– The Princely States were allotted 93 seats, but many of these remained vacant as the princely states were slow to join the Constituent Assembly.

Source: Constituent Assembly of India – Wikipedia

The correct answer is: c) 1 and 2

Explanation:

– A representative body to frame the Constitution was indeed promised, but it was not specifically described as a “nominated” body.

– Dominion Status was indeed mentioned as an objective, so the statement that it was not the objective is incorrect.

– More Indian representation in the Viceroy’s Executive Council was promised.

– An Advisory War Council with Indian participation was also promised.

Therefore, the terms that were not part of the August Offer are:

– Dominion Status was not the objective of India (this is incorrect as Dominion Status was indeed mentioned as an objective).

– A Nominated Indian Body would be formed after the War to frame the Constitution (the term “nominated” is not accurate).

Thus, the correct answer is: c) 1 and 2

The correct answer is: Option B: (a) 3, (b) 2, (c) 1, (d) 4

Explanation:

Loess: These are wind-blown deposits of fine-grained, yellowish silt
Moraines: These are deposits of rock and sediment left behind by glaciers
Gravels: These are typically deposited by rivers due to their carrying capacity
Sand and Clay: These can be deposited in various environments but are common in marine settings

Now matching them:
– Loess → Wind deposits (3)
– Moraines → Glacier deposits (2)
– Gravels → River deposits (1)
– Sand and Clay → Sea deposits (4)

This matches with option b) (a) 3, (b) 2, (c) 1, (d) 4

Correct Answer: d) Jharkhand

Explanation: Jhumming cultivation, also known as shifting cultivation, is a traditional agricultural practice where land is cleared by cutting and burning vegetation, crops are grown for a few years, and then the land is left to regenerate. In Jharkhand, this practice is locally referred to as ‘Kuruwa’. It is a common method of farming in tribal areas of the state, where the indigenous communities rely on this technique for their livelihood.