Q. Consider the following pairs: Wetland/Lake Location
1. Hokera Wetland – Punjab 2. Renuka Wetland – Himachal Pradesh 3. Rudrasagar Lake – Tripura 4. Sasthamkotta Lake – Tamil Nadu
How many pairs given above are correctly matched? a) Only one pair b) Only two pairs c) Only three pairs d) All four pairs Correct Answer: b) Only two pairs
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
Wetland/Lake – Location
Let’s look at each pair:
1. Hokera Wetland / Punjab – Incorrectly Matched
The Hokera Wetland is actually located in the Kashmir Valley, specifically in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir, not in Punjab.
The Renuka Wetland, which includes the Renuka Lake, is indeed located in Himachal Pradesh. It is a Ramsar site and is the largest natural lake in Himachal Pradesh.
3. Rudrasagar Lake / Tripura – Correctly Matched
Rudrasagar Lake, also known as Rudijala, is a lake located in the northeastern Indian state of Tripura. It is also a Ramsar site, recognized for its ecological significance.
4. Sasthamkotta Lake / Tamil Nadu – Incorrectly Matched
Sasthamkotta Lake is actually located in the state of Kerala, not Tamil Nadu. It is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala and is also a Ramsar site.
Therefore, only two pairs (Renuka Wetland / Himachal Pradesh and Rudrasagar Lake / Tripura) are correctly matched.
Q. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:
1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. 2. Sputnik. V vaccine is manufactured using vector-based platform. 3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: b) 2 and 3 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
The correct statements are:
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector-based platform.
Sputnik V, developed by Russia’s Gamaleya Research Institute, is indeed a vector-based vaccine. It uses two different human adenoviruses (rAd26 and rAd5) in a two-dose regimen to deliver the genetic material for the SARS-CoV-2 spike protein. The use of two different vectors for the two shots is intended to boost the immune response by minimizing the chance of the immune system developing resistance to the vector itself.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine.
COVAXIN, developed by Bharat Biotech in India, is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. It is made by inactivating the SARS-CoV-2 virus, which means the virus is killed so that it cannot replicate, but it can still trigger an immune response when introduced into the body.
Explanation:
1. The Serum Institute of India produced the COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield, but it is not based on the mRNA platform. Covishield is developed by the University of Oxford and AstraZeneca and is manufactured by the Serum Institute of India under license. It uses a viral vector platform, specifically a modified chimpanzee adenovirus (ChAdOx1), to deliver the genetic material that codes for the spike protein of the SARS-CoV-2 virus. This allows the body’s immune system to recognize and respond to the spike protein without being exposed to the actual virus.
Q. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:
1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. 2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. 3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 d) 2 and 3 Correct Answer: c) 1 and 3
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
The correct statements in respect of probiotics are 1 and 3.
Let’s break down each statement:
1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
This statement is correct. Probiotics are live microorganisms that are intended to have health benefits when consumed or applied to the body. They can be composed of bacteria, yeast, or both. The most common types of bacteria used as probiotics are Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium, while Saccharomyces boulardii is an example of a yeast that is sometimes used as a probiotic.
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
This statement is incorrect. Many of the organisms used in probiotics are similar to or the same as microorganisms that naturally live in our bodies, particularly in the digestive tract (gut). Our gut microbiota includes a wide variety of bacteria, some of which are the same or similar to those found in probiotic products. Probiotics are often called “good” or “friendly” bacteria because they help keep the gut healthy.
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.
This statement is correct. One of the benefits of certain probiotics is that they can help in the digestion of lactose, which is the sugar found in milk. Some people are lactose intolerant, meaning they have difficulty digesting lactose due to a deficiency of the enzyme lactase. Certain probiotic strains, such as those from the Lactobacillus family, can produce lactase and therefore help in the digestion of lactose, reducing the symptoms of lactose intolerance.
Therefore, the correct answer is that statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. 2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. 3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.
Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
Biofilms and their Characteristics
All three statements are correct:
1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
Biofilms are communities of microorganisms that attach to surfaces and produce a matrix of extracellular polymeric substances (EPS). They can form on a variety of surfaces, including medical devices such as catheters, heart valves, joint replacements, and other implants. Once established, biofilms can be very difficult to eradicate and can lead to persistent infections within the body.
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
In the food industry, biofilms can form on equipment, tanks, pipes, and other surfaces that come into contact with food products. These biofilms can harbor foodborne pathogens and spoilage organisms, which can compromise food safety and quality. Regular cleaning and sanitation practices are necessary to prevent and control biofilm formation in food processing environments.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.
Microorganisms within biofilms are notoriously difficult to treat with antibiotics. The EPS matrix can act as a barrier to the penetration of antimicrobial agents, and the close proximity of cells within the biofilm can facilitate the transfer of genetic material, including genes conferring resistance. Additionally, the slow growth rate of cells within a biofilm can render them less susceptible to antibiotics that target rapidly dividing cells. This resistance can make biofilm-associated infections particularly challenging to treat.
Therefore, the correct answer is 1, 2, and 3, as all statements given are accurate descriptions of the characteristics and challenges associated with biofilms.
Q. Consider the following communication technologies: 1. Closed-circuit Television 2. Radio Frequency Identification 3. Wireless Local Area Network
Which of the above are considered communication Short-Range devices/technologies?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
All three technologies mentioned can be considered short-range communication devices/technologies.
Here’s why each one is considered short-range:
1. Closed-circuit Television (CCTV):
CCTV systems use cameras that transmit video signals to a specific, limited set of monitors. The transmission is not broadcast over the air like traditional television but is instead confined to a private network (closed-circuit). The range of CCTV is limited by the design of the system and the type of cabling used. It is typically used for surveillance within a specific area like a building, campus, or commercial complex, which makes it a short-range communication technology in the context of its operational environment.
2. Radio Frequency Identification (RFID):
RFID systems consist of tags and readers. An RFID tag contains a chip and antenna, and it transmits data to an RFID reader through radio waves. The range of RFID systems can vary from a few centimeters to several meters, depending on the type of RFID (low-frequency, high-frequency, or ultra-high-frequency) and the power of the reader. Even though some RFID systems can reach up to a few meters, they are still considered short-range compared to other communication technologies like cellular networks.
3. Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN):
WLAN, commonly known as Wi-Fi, is a wireless network technology that allows devices to connect to the internet or communicate with one another within a local area. The typical range of a WLAN is limited to a few tens of meters indoors, although it can be extended with the use of additional access points or signal boosters. Despite the possibility of extending its range, WLAN is still considered a short-range communication technology because it is designed to operate within a limited geographical area, such as a home, office, or campus.
Therefore, the correct answer is “1, 2 and 3” because all these technologies are designed to operate over short distances within a specific and confined area.
Q. Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?
a) Cloud Services b) Quantum Computing c) Visible Light Communication Technologies d) Wireless Communication Technologies Correct Answer: b) Quantum Computing
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
Qubit
The term “qubit” is mentioned in the context of Quantum Computing. A qubit, or quantum bit, is the fundamental unit of quantum information—the quantum version of the classical binary bit. Unlike a classical bit, which can be in one of two states (0 or 1), a qubit can be in a superposition of both states simultaneously, thanks to the principles of quantum mechanics.
Quantum Computing and its Unique Capabilities
This property of superposition, along with other quantum phenomena like entanglement, allows quantum computers to process information in ways that are fundamentally different from classical computers. Quantum computers have the potential to solve certain types of problems much more efficiently than classical computers, including those related to cryptography, optimization, and simulation of quantum systems.
Advancements and Challenges of Quantum Computing
Quantum computing is a rapidly developing field, with significant research and investment from both the public and private sectors. It holds the promise of significant advancements in various areas of science and technology, although practical and widespread quantum computing is still an emerging technology and faces many technical challenges before it becomes mainstream.
Q. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:
1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1, 3 and 4 b) 1 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 1 and 2 only Correct Answer: b) 1 and 4 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
WHO Air Quality Guidelines
The World Health Organization (WHO) provides guidelines for air quality that set recommended limits for the concentration of pollutants in the air. These guidelines are designed to protect human health from the adverse effects of air pollution.
Analysis of WHO Air Quality Statements
Let’s examine the statements one by one:
PM2.5 Guidelines
1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. This statement is incorrect according to the latest WHO Air Quality Guidelines (2021). The WHO recommends that the 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³, but the annual mean should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
Ozone Pollution and Weather
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. This statement is incorrect. Ozone pollution tends to be higher during sunny periods with high temperatures and stagnant air conditions. Inclement weather, which often involves rain and wind, can help disperse pollutants and reduce ozone levels.
PM10 Health Impact
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. This statement is partially correct. While PM10 (particulate matter with a diameter of 10 micrometers or less) can penetrate deep into the lungs, it is the smaller PM2.5 particles that are more likely to penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
Ozone and Asthma
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. This statement is correct. Ozone is a powerful respiratory irritant, and high levels of ozone can trigger asthma attacks and exacerbate other respiratory conditions.
Based on the analysis above, the correct statements are 1 (with the corrected values for PM2.5) and 4. Therefore, the correct answer is “1 and 4 only” if we correct the values in statement 1 to align with the WHO guidelines.
Q. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the :
a) First half of the month of June b) Second half of the month of June c) First half of the month of July d) Second half of the month of July Correct Answer: b) Second half of the month of June
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
Summer Solstice
The longest day of the year in the northern hemisphere is known as the summer solstice, which marks the official beginning of summer. This occurs when the North Pole is tilted closest to the sun, resulting in the maximum number of daylight hours for locations in the northern hemisphere.
Date and Time
The summer solstice typically falls within the second half of the month of June, usually on June 20th, 21st, or 22nd, depending on the year and local time zone. The exact date and time of the solstice can vary slightly each year due to the Earth’s elliptical orbit and its axial tilt. However, it consistently occurs within that timeframe.
Longest Day of the Year
Therefore, the correct answer is the second half of the month of June. This is when the northern hemisphere experiences the longest day (most daylight hours) and the shortest night of the calendar year.
1. “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. 2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”. 3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. 4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. 5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.
Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 b) 1, 3 and 4 only c) 2, 3 and 5 only d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Correct Answer: b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
Climate Group and EP100 Initiative
The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
EP100 and Corporate Energy Efficiency
EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
Indian Companies and EP100
Some Indian companies are members of EP100, showcasing their commitment to improving energy efficiency.
Clarifying Misconceptions
It is a common misconception that the International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched the global initiative “EP100”. In reality, EP100 is an initiative of The Climate Group in partnership with the Alliance to Save Energy.
Additionally, the International Energy Agency is not the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. The Climate Group serves as the Secretariat to this global community of state and regional governments committed to ambitious climate action.
Q. With reference to India, consider the following statements:
1. Monazite is a source of rare earths. 2. Monazite contains thorium. 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. 4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.
Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 3 and 4 only d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Correct Answer: b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
Monazite as a Source of Rare Earth Elements
Monazite is indeed a source of rare earth elements, which are critical for a variety of modern technologies. It is a phosphate mineral that contains thorium, a radioactive element, as well as rare earth elements. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
Occurrence of Monazite in Indian Coastal Sands
Statement 3 is not entirely accurate. While monazite does occur in coastal sands, it is not found along the entire Indian coastline. It is mainly found in the heavy mineral sands of the beaches of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Odisha. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands.
Mining and Processing of Monazite in India
Statement 4 is correct. In India, the mining and processing of monazite are restricted and can only be carried out by government or government-authorized entities due to its thorium content, which has strategic importance as a nuclear fuel. The Atomic Minerals Concession Rules, 2016, under the Atomic Energy Act of 1962, regulate the mining and handling of monazite.
Thus, the statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct, making the correct answer: 1, 2, and 4 only.