Prelims 2022 GS Solution

Q. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

Q. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Correct Answer: b) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Lok Sabha Exclusive Powers in India’s Bicameral Parliament

The Lok Sabha, which is the lower house of India’s bicameral Parliament, holds several key powers within the government structure. Among these powers, some are exclusive to the Lok Sabha, distinguishing its role from that of the Rajya Sabha, the upper house.

Ratification of Emergency Declaration

The power to ratify a declaration of Emergency is not exclusive to the Lok Sabha. Both Houses of Parliament, which include the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, need to approve the proclamation of Emergency within one month of the issuance. This approval requires a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, as per Article 352 of the Indian Constitution.

No-Confidence Motion Against the Council of Ministers

The Lok Sabha does have the exclusive power to pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. This is a significant power as the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. If a motion of no-confidence is passed by the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers is obligated to resign. The provision for this power is found in Article 75 of the Indian Constitution.

Impeachment of the President of India

The impeachment process of the President of India is not an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha. It can be initiated by either House of Parliament. The process involves the signing of impeachment charges by one-fourth of the members of the House and a subsequent 14-day notice period to the President. Following the framing of charges, they must be passed by a two-thirds majority of the total membership of that House. The other House then investigates the charges, and if they also pass the resolution by a two-thirds majority of the total membership, the President is impeached as outlined in Article 61 of the Indian Constitution.

In conclusion, among the options provided, the exclusive power of the Lok Sabha is “2 only,” which refers to the ability to pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.

Q. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? Read More »

Consider the following countries: 1. Azerbaijan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekstan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

Q. Consider the following countries:
1. Azerbaijan
2. Kyrgyzstan
3. Tajikistan
4. Turkmenistan
5. Uzbekstan

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer: c) 3, 4 and 5 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Countries Sharing a Border with Afghanistan

Among the listed countries, the ones that share a border with Afghanistan are:

3. Tajikistan

It shares a significant border with Afghanistan to the south, which includes a long stretch along the Panj River and the Wakhan Corridor, a narrow strip of land connecting Afghanistan with China.

4. Turkmenistan

It has a border with Afghanistan to the southeast. The border is relatively short compared to Tajikistan’s and runs along the Amu Darya River.

5. Uzbekistan

It shares a border with Afghanistan to the south. The border is not very long and is marked by the Amu Darya River as well.

The other two countries listed do not border Afghanistan:

1. Azerbaijan: It is located to the northwest of the Caspian Sea and does not share a border with Afghanistan. It is separated from Afghanistan by the Caspian Sea and several countries, including Turkmenistan and Iran.

2. Kyrgyzstan: It is located further to the northeast and does not share a border with Afghanistan. It is separated from Afghanistan by Tajikistan and Uzbekistan.

Therefore, the correct answer is “3, 4 and 5 only” as these are the countries that have borders with Afghanistan.

Note: Afghanistan is a landlocked country located in South Asia and Central Asia. It shares its borders with the following countries:

1. Pakistan to the east and south.
2. Iran to the west.
3. Turkmenistan to the northwest.
4. Uzbekistan to the north.
5. Tajikistan to the north and northeast.
6. China to the far northeast (specifically the region of Xinjiang), though this border is very short compared to the others.

Consider the following countries: 1. Azerbaijan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekstan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan? Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: b) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Indian Constitution: Ministerial Ranks and the 91st Amendment

The Constitution of India does not explicitly classify ministers into four ranks. The classification into Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister is more of a convention that has developed through practice within the parliamentary system of government. It is not specified in the Constitution itself. The Constitution does mention the Council of Ministers and their responsibility to aid and advise the President, but it does not go into the specifics of the different ranks.

The 91st Amendment and its Implications

The 91st Amendment to the Constitution of India, made in 2003, added a provision that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha. This is mentioned in Article 75(1A) of the Constitution. The purpose of this amendment was to prevent an excessively large number of ministers in the government, which could lead to an unnecessary burden on the public exchequer and could also be seen as a means to create political patronage.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. Read More »

Q- Consider the following pairs: Peak – Mountains 1. Namcha Barwa – Garhwal Himalaya 2. Nanda Devi – Kumaon Himalaya 3. Nokrek – Sikkim Himalaya

Q- Consider the following pairs:
Peak – Mountains
1. Namcha Barwa – Garhwal Himalaya
2. Nanda Devi – Kumaon Himalaya
3. Nokrek – Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Correct Answer: b) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Pairs of Peaks and Himalayan Regions

Let’s evaluate each pair:

1. Namcha Barwa – Garhwal Himalaya

Namcha Barwa is not located in the Garhwal Himalayas. It is actually situated in the easternmost part of the Himalayas, in the Tibet Autonomous Region of China. Therefore, this pair is not correctly matched.

2. Nanda Devi – Kumaon Himalaya

Nanda Devi is indeed located in the Kumaon Himalayas, which is a region in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. Nanda Devi is the second-highest mountain in India and the highest entirely within the country (Kangchenjunga being on the border with Nepal). This pair is correctly matched.

3. Nokrek – Sikkim Himalaya

Nokrek is not a peak in the Sikkim Himalayas. It is actually a hill located in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya, India, and is known for the Nokrek National Park, a UNESCO Biosphere Reserve. Therefore, this pair is not correctly matched.

Given the above explanations, the correct answer is “2 only,” meaning that only the second pair (Nanda Devi – Kumaon Himalaya) is correctly matched.

Q- Consider the following pairs: Peak – Mountains 1. Namcha Barwa – Garhwal Himalaya 2. Nanda Devi – Kumaon Himalaya 3. Nokrek – Sikkim Himalaya Read More »

Q. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

Q. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

a) Cauvery
b) Manjira
c) Pennar
d) Tungabhadra
Correct Answer: c) Pennar

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Gandikota: Grand Canyon of India

Gandikota is often referred to as the “Grand Canyon of India” due to its majestic gorge formed by the Pennar River cutting through the Erramala hills in Andhra Pradesh, South India. This impressive canyon is known for its stunning landscapes and the ancient Gandikota fort, which overlooks the gorge.

The Pennar River, which is the correct answer, is responsible for creating this natural marvel. Over millions of years, the river has eroded the rock, carving a deep canyon with steep rocky walls. The Pennar River is one of the major rivers in the Deccan Plateau of southern India, and it flows through the states of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

The other rivers listed—Cauvery, Manjira, and Tungabhadra—also flow in southern India but are not associated with the formation of the Gandikota canyon. The Cauvery River is known for creating a different set of landscapes, including the famous Hogenakkal Falls. The Manjira is a tributary of the Godavari River, and the Tungabhadra is a tributary of the Krishna River. Each of these rivers has its own unique path and geological influence, but it is the Pennar River that is credited with the creation of the Gandikota canyon.

Q. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? Read More »

Q. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: b) 3 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) Overview

The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM), initially known as the National Digital Health Mission, is a significant initiative by the Government of India. Its goal is to construct the necessary infrastructure for an integrated digital health ecosystem. The ABDM strives to connect various stakeholders in the healthcare sector through digital means.

Adoption by Hospitals

Contrary to the belief that all private and public hospitals must adopt the ABDM, the initiative is not compulsory. It is designed to be an inclusive and voluntary program. Healthcare providers are encouraged to join and integrate into the digital health ecosystem by complying with the standards set forth by the mission.

Universal Health Coverage and Citizen Participation

Although the ABDM aims to facilitate universal health coverage, it does not require mandatory participation from every Indian citizen. The initiative allows citizens to voluntarily enroll for a digital health ID, which is used to manage their personal health records. The mission’s objective is to make healthcare more accessible but not to enforce enrollment.

Portability of Health Records

A pivotal feature of the ABDM is the portability of health records across India. This ensures that a patient’s health data can be securely accessed and shared among various healthcare providers, regardless of their location. The patient’s consent is essential for the sharing of this information, maintaining the privacy and security of health data.

Q. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3 (Official Answer)

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Power to Issue Writs in India’s Judicial System

In India, the High Courts and the Supreme Court hold the authority to issue writs for enforcing the fundamental rights of citizens, as well as for other purposes. These writs, which are an integral part of the common law system, have been borrowed from English law and include Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto.

Analysis of Statements Regarding the Issuance of Writs

The writ of Mandamus is a directive from a court to a lower court, tribunal, or public authority, compelling them to perform a mandatory act. It is generally not applicable to private entities unless they are tasked with a public duty. In such cases, Mandamus can be issued to enforce the performance of that public duty.

Second statement, According to UPSC Official Answer key – it is correct.

The writ of Quo Warranto provides a means to challenge the legality of an individual’s claim to a public office. It allows any public-spirited individual, not necessarily personally aggrieved, to petition the court. This ensures that any person occupying a public office does so legitimately and in the interest of maintaining the integrity of public service.

In conclusion, statements 1 and 3 accurately reflect the provisions related to the issuance of writs in the Indian judicial system, confirming that the correct answer is “1 and 3 only”.

Q. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Attorney General and Solicitor General’s Roles in Indian Parliament

The Attorney General of India is often mistaken to have the same parliamentary privileges as the Solicitor General of India. However, this is not the case. The Attorney General has the unique right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament of India, as stated in Article 88 of the Indian Constitution. This includes the right to speak in both Houses of Parliament and any committee meetings, though without a right to vote. On the other hand, the Solicitor General, who assists the Attorney General, does not possess these rights.

Resignation of the Attorney General of India

Another common misconception is regarding the resignation of the Attorney General. According to Article 76 of the Indian Constitution, the Attorney General holds office at the pleasure of the President and is not constitutionally required to resign when the appointing government resigns or is replaced. While it is conventional for the Attorney General to resign in such circumstances, it is not mandated by the Constitution.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. Read More »

Q. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.

Q. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: c) Both 1 and 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Household Financial Savings and Government Borrowings

In India, household savings are a significant source of funds for the government. Households invest in various financial instruments such as bank deposits, pension funds, insurance schemes, and government securities. A portion of these savings is channeled into government borrowings through the purchase of government bonds and securities. This helps the government to finance its deficit and undertake public expenditures.

Role of Dated Securities in Government’s Internal Debt

The Indian government raises funds through the issuance of dated securities, which are long-term government bonds with a fixed maturity date. These securities are issued at market-related rates, meaning that the interest rates are determined by the demand and supply dynamics in the market. The government conducts auctions for these securities, where various financial institutions and investors bid to purchase them. These dated securities constitute a large portion of the government’s internal debt, which is the debt owed by the government to domestic creditors.

Q. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the Président of India.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the Président of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: c) 2 and 3 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Process of Amending the Indian Constitution

The process of amending the Indian Constitution is a critical aspect of the country’s parliamentary democracy. This process is governed by Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, which lays down the procedure for its amendment. Here’s an in-depth look at the statements provided to clarify the procedure.

Presidential Recommendation for Constitution Amendment Bills

Contrary to the first statement, a Constitution Amendment Bill does not require a prior recommendation of the President of India to be introduced in the Parliament. Members of either House of Parliament can introduce such a bill without the President’s recommendation. However, for amendments that affect the federal structure, ratification by state legislatures is necessary.

Presidential Assent to Constitution Amendment Bills

The second statement is accurate as it highlights the obligatory nature of the President’s assent. Once a Constitution Amendment Bill has been passed by both Houses of Parliament with the required special majority, the President must give his/her assent, thereby making it mandatory.

Special Majority and No Provision for Joint Sitting

The third statement correctly mentions that a Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha with a special majority. Additionally, it emphasizes that there is no provision for a joint sitting in case of a deadlock between the two Houses, which is a unique aspect of the amendment process.

In conclusion, statements 2 and 3 provide an accurate representation of the constitutional amendment process in India, while statement 1 does not align with the procedural requirements as per the Indian Constitution.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the Président of India. Read More »