Correct Answer: c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

– Assertion (A): Balban, a prominent ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, indeed made his government firm and centralized all authority in his hands. He believed in the concept of kingship as a divine institution and worked to strengthen the Sultanate by consolidating power and eliminating any threats to his authority. He implemented strict policies to maintain law and order and suppressed rebellions to ensure a strong central government.

– Reason (R): Balban also took significant measures to protect the north-west frontier of his empire against Mongol invasions. The Mongols were a constant threat during his reign, and he fortified the frontier regions and maintained a strong military presence to counter their attacks.

Balban’s centralization of authority was primarily aimed at strengthening his rule and maintaining internal stability, not solely to address the Mongol threat. Therefore, the correct answer is c).

Correct Answer: b) 4, 3, 1, 2

Explanation:

1. I-tsing: I-tsing was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India in the 7th century CE (around 671–695 CE). He came to study Buddhism and translated many Buddhist texts.

2. Al-Biruni: Al-Biruni was a Persian scholar who came to India in the 11th century CE (around 1017 CE) during the time of Mahmud of Ghazni. He is known for his work “Kitab al-Hind,” which provides a detailed account of Indian culture, science, and religion.

3. Huentsang (Hiuen Tsang): Hiuen Tsang was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India in the 7th century CE (around 630–645 CE). He traveled extensively in India to study Buddhism and left behind detailed records of Indian society and culture.

4. Fahyan (Fa-Hien): Fa-Hien was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India in the early 5th century CE (around 399–414 CE). He came to collect Buddhist scriptures and observe Buddhist practices.

Chronological Order:

– Fa-Hien (4): Early 5th century CE (399–414 CE)

– Hiuen Tsang (3): 7th century CE (630–645 CE)

– I-tsing (1): 7th century CE (671–695 CE)

– Al-Biruni (2): 11th century CE (1017 CE)

Correct Answer: b) 4, 3, 1, 2

The correct answer is: c) Only 1

Explanation:

1. Kunwar Singh, Landlord of Jagdishpur in Bihar, led the rebellion against the British:

This statement is correct. Kunwar Singh was a prominent leader during the Revolt of 1857. He was a landlord (zamindar) of Jagdishpur in Bihar and played a significant role in leading the rebellion against British rule in that region. Despite being in his 80s, he displayed remarkable courage and leadership during the uprising.

2. Rani Lakshmi Bai recognised the adopted son of Ram Lakshmi Bai as the heir apparent:

This statement is incorrect. Rani Lakshmi Bai of Jhansi adopted a son, Damodar Rao, as her heir after her husband, Raja Gangadhar Rao, passed away. However, the British refused to recognize her adopted son as the legitimate heir under the Doctrine of Lapse policy, which was one of the reasons for her participation in the 1857 revolt. 

Thus, only Statement 1 is correct.

Correct Answer: (a) 2 1 4 3.

Explanation:

– A. Lallanji Gopal: The Economic Life of Northern India

– B. Habib and Nizami: A Comprehensive History of India: The Delhi Sultanat

– C. K.S. Lal: History of the Khaljis

– D. Dasharatha Sharma: Early Chauhan Dynasties

Therefore, the correct code is (a) 2 1 4 3.

The correct answer is: d) 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts

Explanation:

– 73rd Amendment Act (1992): This amendment introduced Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), which are decentralized local self-government systems in rural areas. It aimed to empower local rural bodies, ensuring democratic governance and promoting participation from the grassroots level.

– 74th Amendment Act (1992): This amendment focused on Urban Local Bodies (ULBs), such as municipalities. It provided a constitutional framework for the creation, composition, and functioning of these urban local governance institutions, ensuring better urban administration and development.

These two amendments were significant in decentralizing power and promoting local self-governance in both rural and urban areas of India.

Correct Answer: d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1: It reiterates India’s commitment to Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS agreement.

– This statement is correct. The National IPR Policy explicitly reaffirms India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) agreement under the World Trade Organization (WTO). The policy ensures that India’s IPR regime is in compliance with international agreements while safeguarding national interests.

Statement 2: Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating Intellectual Property Rights in India.

– This statement is also correct. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), now renamed as the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal agency responsible for formulating and implementing policies related to intellectual property rights in India. It oversees the administration of patents, trademarks, copyrights, and other forms of intellectual property.

Both statements are correct. Hence, the correct answer is d) Both 1 and 2.

Correct Answer: b) 1 and 3

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: She was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India.

– This statement is correct. Fathima Beevi was the first woman to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India in 1989. She was also the first woman judge in the higher judiciary in India.

2. Statement 2: She served as the Governor of Kerala from 1997–2001.

– This statement is incorrect. Fathima Beevi did not serve as the Governor of Kerala. She served as the Governor of Tamil Nadu from 1997 to 2001.

3. Statement 3: She was the first Muslim woman to enter into higher judiciary.

– This statement is correct. Fathima Beevi was the first Muslim woman to be appointed to the higher judiciary in India, making her a trailblazer in this regard.

Thus, the correct answer is b) 1 and 3.

Correct Answer: d) 2 and 3.

Explanation:

1. Trade and Commerce:

– Entry 33 of the Concurrent List mentions “Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply, and distribution of” certain goods (e.g., foodstuffs, raw cotton, etc.).
– However, general “Trade and Commerce” as a subject is not explicitly listed in the Concurrent List. It is primarily a Union List subject (Entry 41 of the Union List deals with “Trade and commerce with foreign countries”).

– Therefore, Trade and Commerce is not part of the Concurrent List.
Note: Offical Answer may differ.

2. Adulteration of Goods:

– Entry 18 of the Concurrent List explicitly mentions “Adulteration of foodstuffs and other goods.”

3. Succession:

– Entry 5 of the Concurrent List includes “Marriage and divorce; infants and minors; adoption; wills, intestacy, and succession.”

The correct answer is d) 2 and 3.

Correct Answer: b) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: In the Constitution, there is a provision for the post of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities for every State.

– This statement is incorrect. The Constitution of India provides for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities under Article 350B, but it is not for every state. Instead, the Special Officer is appointed at the central level to investigate matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution and report to the President of India. The officer’s role is not state-specific but rather national in scope.

2. Statement 2: A new Article 350B was added by the 9th Constitution Amendment Act.

– This statement is also incorrect. Article 350B, which provides for the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, was added by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, not the 9th Amendment Act.

Additional Information:

– The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is tasked with ensuring the implementation of constitutional safeguards for linguistic minorities, such as the right to conserve their language, script, or culture (Article 29) and the right to education in their mother tongue (Article 30).

– The officer submits annual reports to the President, which are then laid before Parliament and sent to the concerned states.

Thus, both statements are incorrect, and the correct answer is b) Neither 1 nor 2.

Correct Answer: b) 2 1 4 3.

Explanation:

1. Vitamin A: Deficiency of Vitamin A causes blindness, particularly night blindness. Hence, Vitamin A matches with 2 (Blindness).

2. Vitamin B: Deficiency of Vitamin B (specifically Vitamin B1 or thiamine) causes beriberi, a disease affecting the nervous system. Hence, Vitamin B matches with 1 (Beriberi).

3. Vitamin C: Deficiency of Vitamin C causes scurvy, which is characterized by bleeding gums and poor wound healing. Hence, Vitamin C matches with 4 (Scurvy).

4. Vitamin D: Deficiency of Vitamin D causes rickets, a condition that leads to weak or soft bones in children. Hence, Vitamin D matches with 3 (Rickets).

The correct code is b) 2 1 4 3.