CSAT 2022

Q. The poverty line is quite unsatisfactory when it comes to grasping the extent of poverty in India.

Q. The poverty line is quite unsatisfactory when it comes to grasping the extent of poverty in India.

It is not only because of its extremely narrow definition of who is poor and the debatable methodology used to count the poor, but also because of a more fundamental assumption underlying it. It exclusively relies on the notion of poverty as insufficient income or insufficient purchasing power. One can better categorize it by calling it income poverty. If poverty is ultimately about deprivations affecting human well-being, then income poverty is only one aspect of it. Poverty of a life, in our view. lies not merely in the impoverished state in which the person actually lives, but also in the lack of real opportunity given by social constraints as well as personal circumstances—to choose other types of living. Even the relevance of low incomes, meagre possessions, and other aspects of what are standardly seen as economic poverty relate ultimately to their role in curtailing capabilities, i.e., their role in severely restricting the choices people have to lead variable and valued lives.

Q. 1. Why is the methodology adopted in India to count the “poor* debatable?

a. There is some confusion regarding what should constitute the ‘poverty line’.

b. There are wide diversities in the condition of the rural and urban poor.

c. There is no uniform global standard for measuring income poverty.

d. It is based on the proposition of poverty as meagre income or buying capacity.

Q. 2. Why is income poverty only one measure of counting the ‘poor’?

a. It talks of only one kind of deprivation ignoring all others.
b. Other deprivations in a human life have nothing to do with lack of purchasing power.
c. Income poverty is not a permanent condition, it changes from time to time.
d. Income poverty restricts human choices only at a point of time.

Q. 3. What does the author mean by “poverty of a life?

a. All deprivations in a human life which stem not only from lack of income but lack of real opportunities
b.Impoverished state of poor people in rural and urban areas
c. Missed opportunities in diverse personal circumstances
d. Material as well as non-material deprivations in a human life which restrict human choices permanently

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
Q1: Correct Answer – d.   It is based on the proposition of poverty as meagre income or buying capacity.

Explanation – The methodology adopted in India to count the “poor” is debatable because it exclusively relies on the notion of poverty as insufficient income or insufficient purchasing power. This can be better categorized as income poverty [d].
The passage does not provide information about options a, b and c. However, it is possible that there may be confusion regarding what should constitute the ‘poverty line’ [a], wide diversities in the condition of the rural and urban poor [b], and no uniform global standard for measuring income poverty [c]. These factors could also contribute to making the methodology adopted in India to count the “poor” debatable.

Q2: Correct Answer – c.    there are no evidences to refute it

Explanation – Income poverty is only one measure of counting the ‘poor’ because it only talks about one kind of deprivation while ignoring all others. Poverty ultimately affects human well-being and if it’s about deprivations affecting human well-being, then income poverty is only one aspect of it [a].
The passage does not provide information about options b, c and d. However, it is possible that other deprivations in a human life may have nothing to do with lack of purchasing power [b], income poverty may not be a permanent condition and could change from time to time [c], and income poverty may restrict human choices only at a point of time [d]. These factors could also contribute to making income poverty only one measure of counting the ‘poor’.

Q3: Correct Answer – a.    1 only

Explanation – By “poverty of a life,” the author means all deprivations in a human life which stem not only from lack of income but also from lack of real opportunities given by social constraints as well as personal circumstances—to choose other types of living [a].
The passage does not provide information about options b, c and d. However, it is possible that poverty of a life could also refer to the impoverished state of poor people in rural and urban areas [b], missed opportunities in diverse personal circumstances [c], and material as well as non-material deprivations in a human life which restrict human choices permanently [d].

Q. The poverty line is quite unsatisfactory when it comes to grasping the extent of poverty in India. Read More »

Q. In simple matters like shoe-making, we think only a specially trained person will serve our purpose, but in politics, we presume that everyone who knows how to get votes knows how to administer a State.

Q. In simple matters like shoe-making, we think only a specially trained person will serve our purpose, but in politics, we presume that everyone who knows how to get votes knows how to administer a State.

When we are ill, we call for a trained physician, whose degree is a guarantee of specific preparation and technical competence—we do not ask for the handsomest physician, or the most eloquent one : well then, when the whole State is ill should we not look for the service and guidance of the wisest and the best?

Q. 1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the message of the author of the passage?

a. We assume that in a democracy, any politician is qualified to administer a State
b. Politicians should be selected from those trained in administration.
c. We need to devise a method of barring incompetence from public office.
d. As voters select their administrators, the eligibility of politicians to administer a State cannot be questioned.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
Q1: Correct Answer – b.   Politicians should be selected from those trained in administration.

Explanation – The author of the passage is making a comparison between how we approach selecting someone for a specific task in our personal lives versus how we approach selecting someone to administer a state. The author argues that just as we look for specific qualifications and expertise when choosing a physician or a shoemaker, we should also look for the same when choosing someone to administer a state. The statement that best reflects the message of the author is (b) Politicians should be selected from those trained in administration.

Q. In simple matters like shoe-making, we think only a specially trained person will serve our purpose, but in politics, we presume that everyone who knows how to get votes knows how to administer a State. Read More »

Q. In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau.

Q. In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau.

Neither new strains nor fancy agrochemicals are raising the yields. Nor is there much unfarmed land left that is suitable to be brought under the plough. If global temperature continues to rise, some places will become unsuitable for farming. Application of technology can help overcome these problems. Agricultural technology is changing fast. Much of this change is brought about by affluent farmers in the West/Americas. Techniques developed in the West are being adapted in some places to make tropical crops more productive. Technology is of little use if it is not adapted. In the developing world, that applies as much to existing farming techniques as it does to the latest advances in genetic modification. Extending to the smallholders and subsistence farmers of Africa and Asia the best of today’s agricultural practices, in such simple matters as how much fertilizers to apply and when, would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity. So would things like better roads and storage facilities, to allow for the carriage of surpluses to markets and reduce wastage.

Q. 1. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1.  Development of agricultural technology is confined to developed countries.
2. Agricultural technology is not adapted in developing countries.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a.  1 only
b. 2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 2. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1.  Poor countries need to bring about change in their existing fanning techniques.
2.  Developed countries have better infrastructure and they waste less food.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a.  1 only
b. 2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 3. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1.  Growing enough food for future generations will be a challenge.
2.  Corporate farming is a viable option for food security in poor countries.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a.  1 only
b. 2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
Q1: Correct Answer – d.   Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation – Based on the passage, the correct answer would be d. Neither 1 nor 2. The passage states that much of the change in agricultural technology is brought about by affluent farmers in the West/Americas and that techniques developed in the West are being adapted to make tropical crops more productive. This means that development of agricultural technology is not confined to developed countries (invalidating assumption 1). The passage also mentions that extending the best of today’s agricultural practices to smallholders and subsistence farmers in Africa and Asia would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity. This implies that agricultural technology is being adapted in developing countries (invalidating assumption 2).

Q2: Correct Answer – a.    1 only
Explanation – Based on the passage, the correct answer would be a. 1 only. The passage states that extending the best of today’s agricultural practices to smallholders and subsistence farmers in Africa and Asia would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity. This implies that there is a need for change in existing farming techniques in developing countries (validating assumption 1). However, the passage does not provide any information about whether developed countries have better infrastructure and waste less food (invalidating assumption 2).

Q3: Correct Answer – a.    1 only

Explanation – Based on the passage, the first assumption that “Growing enough food for future generations will be a challenge” is valid. The passage mentions that productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau and that there is little unfarmed land left suitable for farming. It also mentions the potential negative impact of rising global temperatures on farming.

However, the second assumption that “Corporate farming is a viable option for food security in poor countries” is not explicitly mentioned or supported in the passage. The passage does mention that technology developed in the West is being adapted to make tropical crops more productive and that extending best agricultural practices to smallholders and subsistence farmers would lead to increased availability of food. But it does not specifically mention corporate farming as a solution.

So based on this information, only assumption 1 is valid. The correct answer would be (a) 1 only.

Q. In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau. Read More »

Q. With steady economic growth, higher literacy and increasing skill levels, the number of Indian middle-class families has gone up exponentially.

Q. With steady economic growth, higher literacy and increasing skill levels, the number of Indian middle-class families has gone up exponentially.

Direct results of the affluence have been changes in dietary patterns and energy consumption levels. People have moved to a higher protein-based diet like milk products, fish and meat, all of which need significantly more water to produce than cereal- based diets. Increasing use of electronic and electric machines/gadgets and motor vehicles needs more and more energy and generation of energy needs water.

Q. 1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?

  • a.    People should be persuaded to continue with the mainly Indian traditional cereal-based diets.
  • b.   India needs to focus on developing agricultural productivity and capacity for more energy generation in the coming years.
  • c.    Modem technological developments result in the change of cultural and social behaviour of the people.
  • d.   Water management practices in India need to change dramatically in the coining years.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
Q1: Correct Answer – d.   Water management practices in India need to change dramatically in the coining years.
Explanation – The passage discusses the increase in the number of Indian middle-class families and how this has led to changes in dietary patterns and energy consumption levels. The passage mentions that people have moved to a higher protein-based diet and that the use of electronic machines and motor vehicles has increased. Both of these changes require more water for production. Based on this information, it seems that option d – “Water management practices in India need to change dramatically in the coming years” – best reflects the crux of the passage.

Q. With steady economic growth, higher literacy and increasing skill levels, the number of Indian middle-class families has gone up exponentially. Read More »

Q. Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth.

Q. Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth.

Therefore, the set of existing organisms can never be fully prepared for environmental catastrophes that await life. An outcome of this is the extinction of those species which cannot overcome environmental adversity. This failure to survive, in modem terms, can be attributed to the genomes which are unable to withstand geological vagaries or biological mishaps (infections, diseases and so on). In biological evolution on the earth, extinction of species has been a major feature. The earth may presently have up to ten million species, yet more than 90% of species that have ever lived on the earth are now extinct. Once again, the creationist doctrines fail to satisfactorily address why a divine creator will firstly bother to create millions of species and then allow them to perish. The Darwinian explanation for extinct life is once again simple, elegant and at once convincing—organisms go extinct as a function of environmental or biological assaults for which their inheritance deems them ill-equipped. Therefore, the so-called Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all. Evolution happens—this is a fact. The mechanism of evolution (Darwin proposed natural selection) is amply supported by scientific data. Indeed, to date no single zoological, botanical, geological, paleontological, genetic or physical evidence has refuted either of the central two main Darwinian ideas. If religion is not taken into consideration, Darwinian laws are acceptable just like the laws proposed by Copernicus, Galileo, Newton and Einstein—sets of natural laws that explain natural phenomena in the universe.

Q. 1. According to the passage, natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth as
1.  species not fully prepared to face the environmental changes that await them will face extinction
2.  all the existing species would get extinct as their genomes will not withstand biological mishaps
3.  inability of the genome to withstand environmental changes would result in extinction
4.  extinction of species is a common feature
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a.  1, 2 and 3
b. 2. 3 and 4
c.  1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4

Q. 2. The passage suggests that Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all because

a.  it does not satisfy the creationist doctrine
b. extinction is a function of environment and biological assaults
c.  there are no evidences to refute it
d. existence of organisms is attributed to a creator

Q. 3. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1.  Only species that have fee ability to overcome environmental catastrophes will survive and perpetuate.
2.  More than 90% of the species on the earth are in the danger of getting extinct due to drastic changes in the environment.
3.  Darwin’s theory explains all the natural phenomena.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a.  1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c.  3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
Q1: Correct Answer – c.    1, 3 and 4
Explanation – In biological evolution on earth, extinction of species has been a major feature. The passage states that more than 90% of species that have ever lived on earth are now extinct. The Darwinian explanation for extinct life is simple and convincing: organisms go extinct as a function of environmental or biological assaults for which their inheritance deems them ill-equipped.

Q2: Correct Answer – c.    there are no evidences to refute it
Explanation – According to the passage, the correct answer would be option c. The passage states that the so-called Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all because evolution happens and is a fact. The mechanism of evolution proposed by Darwin (natural selection) is amply supported by scientific data. To date, no single zoological, botanical, geological, paleontological, genetic or physical evidence has refuted either of the central two main Darwinian ideas.

Q3: Correct Answer – a.    1 only

According to the passage, the valid assumption would be option a. 1 only. The passage states that species that are unable to overcome environmental adversity may face extinction and that this failure to survive can be attributed to their genomes being unable to withstand geological vagaries or biological mishaps. This suggests that only species that have the ability to overcome environmental catastrophes will survive and perpetuate.

The passage does not state that more than 90% of the species on earth are in danger of getting extinct due to drastic changes in the environment. Instead, it states that more than 90% of species that have ever lived on earth are now extinct.

The passage also does not state that Darwin’s theory explains all natural phenomena. It states that the mechanism of evolution proposed by Darwin (natural selection) is amply supported by scientific data and has not been refuted by any evidence.

Q. Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth. Read More »

Q. Six lectures A, B, C, D, E and F, each of one hour duration, are scheduled between 8:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m.

Q. Six lectures A, B, C, D, E and F, each of one hour duration, are scheduled between 8:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m.

Consider the Question and two Statements given below:
Question : Which lecture is in the third period?
Statement-1 : Lecture F is preceded by A and followed by C.
Statcment-2 : There is no lecture after lecture B.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?
a. Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
b. Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
c. Both Statement-1 and Statemcnt-2 are sufficient to answer the Question
d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question
Correct Answer: d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

To determine which lecture is in the third period, we will analyze the given statements:

Statement-1: Lecture F is preceded by A and followed by C.
From this statement, we know the order of three lectures: A -> F -> C. However, it does not provide any information about the exact time or period of these lectures, so we cannot determine which lecture is in the third period using this statement alone.

Statement-2: There is no lecture after lecture B.
This statement tells us that lecture B is the last lecture, scheduled at 1:00 p.m. However, it does not provide any information about the other lectures, so we cannot determine which lecture is in the third period using this statement alone.

Now, let’s see if we can answer the question by combining both statements:

From Statement-1, we know that A -> F -> C is a sequence of lectures. And from Statement-2, we know that B is the last lecture. So, we can create two possible scenarios:

Scenario 1:
A -> F -> C -> D -> E -> B

Scenario 2:
D -> A -> F -> C -> E -> B

In both scenarios, we cannot determine which lecture is in the third period, as it can be either C (Scenario 1) or F (Scenario 2). Even E position is also not fixed.

Thus, the correct answer is d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the question.

Q. Six lectures A, B, C, D, E and F, each of one hour duration, are scheduled between 8:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m. Read More »

Question: What is the age of Manisha?

Q. Consider the Question and two Statements given below:

Question: What is the age of Manisha?

Statement-1: Manisha is 24 years younger than her mother.
Statement-2 : 5 years later, the ages of Manisha and her mother will be in the ratio 3:5.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?
a. Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
b. Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
c. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question
d. Both Statement-1 and Statcment-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question
Correct Answer: c.  Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

To determine the age of Manisha, we need to analyze both statements together.

Statement-1: Manisha is 24 years younger than her mother.
Let Manisha’s age be M and her mother’s age be X. So, X = M + 24.

Statement-2: 5 years later, the ages of Manisha and her mother will be in the ratio 3:5.
In 5 years, Manisha’s age will be M + 5 and her mother’s age will be X + 5. The ratio of their ages at that time will be 3:5.
(M + 5) / (X + 5) = 3 / 5

Now, we have two equations with two variables:

X = M + 24
(M + 5) / (X + 5) = 3 / 5
Substitute the value of X from the first equation into the second equation:
(M + 5) / (M + 24 + 5) = 3 / 5

Solve for M:
5(M + 5) = 3(M + 29)
5M + 25 = 3M + 87
2M = 62
M = 31

Manisha’s age is 31. Therefore, both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the question. The correct answer is:

c. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question

Question: What is the age of Manisha? Read More »

Q. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting equidistant from each other around a circular table (facing the centre of the table).

Q. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting equidistant from each other around a circular table (facing the centre of the table).

Consider the Question and two Statements given below:
Question: Who is sitting on the immediate left of A?
Statement-1: B is sitting opposite to C and D is sitting opposite to E.
Statement-2 : F is sitting on the immediate left of B.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?
a. Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
b. Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
c. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question
d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question
Correct Answer: d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
To determine who is sitting on the immediate left of A, we need to analyze the given statements.

Statement-1: B is sitting opposite to C and D is sitting opposite to E.
From this statement, we can deduce the following seating arrangement (clockwise):
B is opposite to C.
D is opposite to E.
However, this statement does not provide any information about the position of A or who is sitting on the immediate left of A. So, Statement-1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement-2: F is sitting on the immediate left of B.
This statement gives us information about the position of F in relation to B, but it does not provide any information about the position of A. So, Statement-2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Combining Statement-1 and Statement-2:
We know the following:
B is opposite to C.
D is opposite to E.
F is sitting on the immediate left of B.
However, even after combining both statements, we still do not have enough information to determine who is sitting on the immediate left of A.

Thus, the correct answer is:
d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Q. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting equidistant from each other around a circular table (facing the centre of the table). Read More »

Q. A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A, B, C, D, E and F. Suppose A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E and six times that of F.

Q. A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A, B, C, D, E and F. Suppose A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E and six times that of F.

What is the minimum number of pens X should buy so that the number of pens each one gets is an even number?
a. 147
b. 150
c.  294
d. 300
Correct Answer: c. 294

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

Person X wants to distribute some pens.

Let the number of pens received by B, C, D, E, and F be represented by b, c, d, e, and f respectively. According to the problem, A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E, and six times that of F. We can write these relationships as:

A = 2b
A = 3c
A = 4d
A = 5e
A = 6f

Now, we want to find the minimum number of pens X should buy so that each child gets an even number of pens. To do this, we can find the least common multiple (LCM) of 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. The LCM is the smallest number that is a multiple of all these numbers.

LCM(2, 3, 4, 5, 6) = 60

So, A must receive at least 60 pens to satisfy the conditions.

Using the relationships above, we can find the number of pens for each child:

A = 60
B = A/2 = 60/2 = 30
C = A/3 = 60/3 = 20
D = A/4 = 60/4 = 15
E = A/5 = 60/5 = 12
F = A/6 = 60/6 = 10

However, we need to make sure that all the children receive an even number of pens. The only odd number of pens is given to D, so we must adjust the number of pens for A to make sure D also gets an even number of pens.

If we increase A to 120 pens (the next multiple of 60), we can calculate the new numbers of pens for each child:

A = 120
B = A/2 = 120/2 = 60
C = A/3 = 120/3 = 40
D = A/4 = 120/4 = 30
E = A/5 = 120/5 = 24
F = A/6 = 120/6 = 20

Now all the children have an even number of pens. The minimum number of pens X should buy is:

Total pens = A + B + C + D + E + F
Total pens = 120 + 60 + 40 + 30 + 24 + 20
Total pens = 294

So, the correct answer is c. 294.

Q. A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A, B, C, D, E and F. Suppose A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E and six times that of F. Read More »

Q. A man started from home at 14:30 hours and drove to village, arriving there when the village clock indicated 15:15 hours. After staying for 25 minutes, he drove back by a different route of length 1.25 times the first route at a rate twice as fast reaching home at 16:00 hours. As compared to the clock at home, the village clock is

Q. A man started from home at 14:30 hours and drove to village, arriving there when the village clock indicated 15:15 hours. After staying for 25 minutes, he drove back by a different route of length 1.25 times the first route at a rate twice as fast reaching home at 16:00 hours. As compared to the clock at home, the village clock is

a. 10 minutes slow
b. 5 minutes slow
c. 10 minutes fast
d. 5 minutes fast
Correct Answer: d. 5 minutes fast

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
Let’s break down the given information and solve the problem step by step:

The man started from home at 14:30 hours and arrived at the village when the village clock indicated 15:15 hours.

He stayed in the village for 25 minutes.
He drove back home by a different route, which was 1.25 times the first route, and at a rate twice as fast as the first route.
He reached home at 16:00 hours.
First, we need to calculate the time taken for each part of the trip:

Total time taken by the man to come back home: 16:00 – 14:30 = 1.5 hours = 90 minutes
Out of which he stayed in the village for 25 minutes.
So, his total traveling time = 90 – 25 = 65 minutes

Let’s denote the time taken for the first route as 100 units. Since the return route was 1.25 times the initial route, the time taken would have increased by 25%. So, the time taken for the second route would be 125 units.

But it is also given that while returning he drove twice as fast, which means the time taken must have been halved. So, the time taken while returning is 62.5 units.

Therefore, the total traveling time can be represented as:

100 units (first route) + 62.5 units (second route) = 65 minutes
162.5 units = 65 minutes

Now, we can find out the actual time taken for the first route:
100 units = (65/162.5) × 100 = 40 minutes

So, the man took 40 minutes to reach the village. The actual time at that moment was:
14:30 (start time) + 40 minutes (travel time) = 15:10 hours
Comparing the village clock with the actual time:
15:15 (village clock) – 15:10 (actual time) = 5 minutes

Hence, the village clock is 5 minutes fast. The correct answer is: d. 5 minutes fast

Q. A man started from home at 14:30 hours and drove to village, arriving there when the village clock indicated 15:15 hours. After staying for 25 minutes, he drove back by a different route of length 1.25 times the first route at a rate twice as fast reaching home at 16:00 hours. As compared to the clock at home, the village clock is Read More »