CSAT 2022

Q. Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth.

Q. Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth.

Therefore, the set of existing organisms can never be fully prepared for environmental catastrophes that await life. An outcome of this is the extinction of those species which cannot overcome environmental adversity. This failure to survive, in modem terms, can be attributed to the genomes which are unable to withstand geological vagaries or biological mishaps (infections, diseases and so on). In biological evolution on the earth, extinction of species has been a major feature. The earth may presently have up to ten million species, yet more than 90% of species that have ever lived on the earth are now extinct. Once again, the creationist doctrines fail to satisfactorily address why a divine creator will firstly bother to create millions of species and then allow them to perish. The Darwinian explanation for extinct life is once again simple, elegant and at once convincing—organisms go extinct as a function of environmental or biological assaults for which their inheritance deems them ill-equipped. Therefore, the so-called Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all. Evolution happens—this is a fact. The mechanism of evolution (Darwin proposed natural selection) is amply supported by scientific data. Indeed, to date no single zoological, botanical, geological, paleontological, genetic or physical evidence has refuted either of the central two main Darwinian ideas. If religion is not taken into consideration, Darwinian laws are acceptable just like the laws proposed by Copernicus, Galileo, Newton and Einstein—sets of natural laws that explain natural phenomena in the universe.

Q. 1. According to the passage, natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth as
1.  species not fully prepared to face the environmental changes that await them will face extinction
2.  all the existing species would get extinct as their genomes will not withstand biological mishaps
3.  inability of the genome to withstand environmental changes would result in extinction
4.  extinction of species is a common feature
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a.  1, 2 and 3
b. 2. 3 and 4
c.  1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4

Q. 2. The passage suggests that Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all because

a.  it does not satisfy the creationist doctrine
b. extinction is a function of environment and biological assaults
c.  there are no evidences to refute it
d. existence of organisms is attributed to a creator

Q. 3. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1.  Only species that have fee ability to overcome environmental catastrophes will survive and perpetuate.
2.  More than 90% of the species on the earth are in the danger of getting extinct due to drastic changes in the environment.
3.  Darwin’s theory explains all the natural phenomena.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

a.  1 only
b. 1 and 2 only
c.  3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
Q1: Correct Answer – c.    1, 3 and 4
Explanation – In biological evolution on earth, extinction of species has been a major feature. The passage states that more than 90% of species that have ever lived on earth are now extinct. The Darwinian explanation for extinct life is simple and convincing: organisms go extinct as a function of environmental or biological assaults for which their inheritance deems them ill-equipped.

Q2: Correct Answer – c.    there are no evidences to refute it
Explanation – According to the passage, the correct answer would be option c. The passage states that the so-called Darwinian theory of evolution is not a theory at all because evolution happens and is a fact. The mechanism of evolution proposed by Darwin (natural selection) is amply supported by scientific data. To date, no single zoological, botanical, geological, paleontological, genetic or physical evidence has refuted either of the central two main Darwinian ideas.

Q3: Correct Answer – a.    1 only

According to the passage, the valid assumption would be option a. 1 only. The passage states that species that are unable to overcome environmental adversity may face extinction and that this failure to survive can be attributed to their genomes being unable to withstand geological vagaries or biological mishaps. This suggests that only species that have the ability to overcome environmental catastrophes will survive and perpetuate.

The passage does not state that more than 90% of the species on earth are in danger of getting extinct due to drastic changes in the environment. Instead, it states that more than 90% of species that have ever lived on earth are now extinct.

The passage also does not state that Darwin’s theory explains all natural phenomena. It states that the mechanism of evolution proposed by Darwin (natural selection) is amply supported by scientific data and has not been refuted by any evidence.

Q. Natural selection cannot anticipate future environments on the earth. Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Between 3:16 p.m. and 3:17 p.m., both hour hand and minute hand coincide. 2. Between 4:58 p.m. and 4:59 p.m., both minute hand and second hand coincide.

Q. Consider the following statements:
1. Between 3:16 p.m. and 3:17 p.m., both hour hand and minute hand coincide.
2. Between 4:58 p.m. and 4:59 p.m., both minute hand and second hand coincide.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: c. Both 1 and 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
From statement 1:
At 3 o’clock, the minute hand is 15 minute spaces apart from hour hand.
To be coincident, it must gain 15 minute spaces.
We know that, 55 minutes are gained in 60 minutes.
So, 15 minutes are gained in (60/55) × 15 = 180/11 minutes = 16.36 minutes
Thus, hour hand and minute hand will coincide at 3:16:36, which is between 3:16 pm and 3:17 p.m.
Hence, statement 1 is correct.

From statement 2:
Between 4:58 p.m. and 4:59 p.m., both minute hand and second hand coincide: At any given time, the second hand moves much faster than the minute hand. This means that during any given minute, there will be a moment when both hands coincide.

Thus, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Between 3:16 p.m. and 3:17 p.m., both hour hand and minute hand coincide. 2. Between 4:58 p.m. and 4:59 p.m., both minute hand and second hand coincide. Read More »

Q. In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau.

Q. In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau.

Neither new strains nor fancy agrochemicals are raising the yields. Nor is there much unfarmed land left that is suitable to be brought under the plough. If global temperature continues to rise, some places will become unsuitable for farming. Application of technology can help overcome these problems. Agricultural technology is changing fast. Much of this change is brought about by affluent farmers in the West/Americas. Techniques developed in the West are being adapted in some places to make tropical crops more productive. Technology is of little use if it is not adapted. In the developing world, that applies as much to existing farming techniques as it does to the latest advances in genetic modification. Extending to the smallholders and subsistence farmers of Africa and Asia the best of today’s agricultural practices, in such simple matters as how much fertilizers to apply and when, would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity. So would things like better roads and storage facilities, to allow for the carriage of surpluses to markets and reduce wastage.

Q. 1. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1.  Development of agricultural technology is confined to developed countries.
2. Agricultural technology is not adapted in developing countries.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a.  1 only
b. 2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 2. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1.  Poor countries need to bring about change in their existing fanning techniques.
2.  Developed countries have better infrastructure and they waste less food.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a.  1 only
b. 2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. 3. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1.  Growing enough food for future generations will be a challenge.
2.  Corporate farming is a viable option for food security in poor countries.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
a.  1 only
b. 2 only
c.  Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
Q1: Correct Answer – d.   Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation – Based on the passage, the correct answer would be d. Neither 1 nor 2. The passage states that much of the change in agricultural technology is brought about by affluent farmers in the West/Americas and that techniques developed in the West are being adapted to make tropical crops more productive. This means that development of agricultural technology is not confined to developed countries (invalidating assumption 1). The passage also mentions that extending the best of today’s agricultural practices to smallholders and subsistence farmers in Africa and Asia would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity. This implies that agricultural technology is being adapted in developing countries (invalidating assumption 2).

Q2: Correct Answer – a.    1 only
Explanation – Based on the passage, the correct answer would be a. 1 only. The passage states that extending the best of today’s agricultural practices to smallholders and subsistence farmers in Africa and Asia would lead to a greatly increased availability of food for humanity. This implies that there is a need for change in existing farming techniques in developing countries (validating assumption 1). However, the passage does not provide any information about whether developed countries have better infrastructure and waste less food (invalidating assumption 2).

Q3: Correct Answer – a.    1 only

Explanation – Based on the passage, the first assumption that “Growing enough food for future generations will be a challenge” is valid. The passage mentions that productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau and that there is little unfarmed land left suitable for farming. It also mentions the potential negative impact of rising global temperatures on farming.

However, the second assumption that “Corporate farming is a viable option for food security in poor countries” is not explicitly mentioned or supported in the passage. The passage does mention that technology developed in the West is being adapted to make tropical crops more productive and that extending best agricultural practices to smallholders and subsistence farmers would lead to increased availability of food. But it does not specifically mention corporate farming as a solution.

So based on this information, only assumption 1 is valid. The correct answer would be (a) 1 only.

Q. In some places in the world, the productivity of staples such as rice and wheat has reached a plateau. Read More »

Q. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting equidistant from each other around a circular table (facing the centre of the table).

Q. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting equidistant from each other around a circular table (facing the centre of the table).

Consider the Question and two Statements given below:
Question: Who is sitting on the immediate left of A?
Statement-1: B is sitting opposite to C and D is sitting opposite to E.
Statement-2 : F is sitting on the immediate left of B.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?
a. Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
b. Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
c. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are sufficient to answer the Question
d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question
Correct Answer: d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
To determine who is sitting on the immediate left of A, we need to analyze the given statements.

Statement-1: B is sitting opposite to C and D is sitting opposite to E.
From this statement, we can deduce the following seating arrangement (clockwise):
B is opposite to C.
D is opposite to E.
However, this statement does not provide any information about the position of A or who is sitting on the immediate left of A. So, Statement-1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement-2: F is sitting on the immediate left of B.
This statement gives us information about the position of F in relation to B, but it does not provide any information about the position of A. So, Statement-2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Combining Statement-1 and Statement-2:
We know the following:
B is opposite to C.
D is opposite to E.
F is sitting on the immediate left of B.
However, even after combining both statements, we still do not have enough information to determine who is sitting on the immediate left of A.

Thus, the correct answer is:
d. Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Q. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting equidistant from each other around a circular table (facing the centre of the table). Read More »

Q. A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A, B, C, D, E and F. Suppose A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E and six times that of F.

Q. A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A, B, C, D, E and F. Suppose A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E and six times that of F.

What is the minimum number of pens X should buy so that the number of pens each one gets is an even number?
a. 147
b. 150
c.  294
d. 300
Correct Answer: c. 294

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

Person X wants to distribute some pens.

Let the number of pens received by B, C, D, E, and F be represented by b, c, d, e, and f respectively. According to the problem, A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E, and six times that of F. We can write these relationships as:

A = 2b
A = 3c
A = 4d
A = 5e
A = 6f

Now, we want to find the minimum number of pens X should buy so that each child gets an even number of pens. To do this, we can find the least common multiple (LCM) of 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. The LCM is the smallest number that is a multiple of all these numbers.

LCM(2, 3, 4, 5, 6) = 60

So, A must receive at least 60 pens to satisfy the conditions.

Using the relationships above, we can find the number of pens for each child:

A = 60
B = A/2 = 60/2 = 30
C = A/3 = 60/3 = 20
D = A/4 = 60/4 = 15
E = A/5 = 60/5 = 12
F = A/6 = 60/6 = 10

However, we need to make sure that all the children receive an even number of pens. The only odd number of pens is given to D, so we must adjust the number of pens for A to make sure D also gets an even number of pens.

If we increase A to 120 pens (the next multiple of 60), we can calculate the new numbers of pens for each child:

A = 120
B = A/2 = 120/2 = 60
C = A/3 = 120/3 = 40
D = A/4 = 120/4 = 30
E = A/5 = 120/5 = 24
F = A/6 = 120/6 = 20

Now all the children have an even number of pens. The minimum number of pens X should buy is:

Total pens = A + B + C + D + E + F
Total pens = 120 + 60 + 40 + 30 + 24 + 20
Total pens = 294

So, the correct answer is c. 294.

Q. A person X wants to distribute some pens among six children A, B, C, D, E and F. Suppose A gets twice the number of pens received by B, three times that of C, four times that of D, five times that of E and six times that of F. Read More »

Q. What is the value of X in the sequence 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, X?

Q. What is the value of X in the sequence 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, X?

a. 248
b. 252
c. 258
d. 262
Correct Answer: b. 252

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
2, 12, 36, 80, 150, X

Consider the differences between consecutive terms:

12 – 2 = 10
36 – 12 = 24
80 – 36 = 44
150 – 80 = 70

Now let’s examine the differences between these differences:

24 – 10 = 14
44 – 24 = 20
70 – 44 = 26

We see that the differences between the differences are increasing by 6 each time. Therefore, to find the next difference between consecutive terms, we can add 6 to the last difference between differences:

26 + 6 = 32

Now we can add this difference to the last difference between consecutive terms in the original sequence:

70 + 32 = 102

Finally, to find the value of X, we can add this difference to the last term in the original sequence:

150 + 102 = 252

Thus, the value of X is 252 (option b).

Q. What is the value of X in the sequence 2, 12, 36, 80, 150, X? Read More »

Q. Two candidates X and Y contested an election. 80% of voters cast their vote and there were no invalid votes. There was no NOTA (None of the above) option. X got 56% of the votes cast and won by 1440 votes. What is the total number of voters in the voters list?

Q. Two candidates X and Y contested an election. 80% of voters cast their vote and there were no invalid votes. There was no NOTA (None of the above) option. X got 56% of the votes cast and won by 1440 votes. What is the total number of voters in the voters list?

a. 15000
b. 12000
c. 9600
d. 5000
Correct Answer: a. 15000

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

Two candidates X and Y contested an election

Let’s assume the total number of voters in the voter list as “T”.

80% of the voters cast their votes which means the total number of votes cast is (80/100) x T = 0.8T.

Now, we know that X got 56% of the votes cast, which means X got 0.56 x 0.8T = 0.448T votes.

Let’s assume Y got “y” votes. Since there were no invalid votes, the total number of votes cast is the sum of votes received by X and Y, i.e., 0.448T + y = 0.8T.

Solving for y, we get y = 0.352T.

Now, we know that X won by 1440 votes. This means X got 1440 more votes than Y. So, we can write an equation as:

0.448T – 0.352T = 1440

Simplifying the equation, we get 0.096T = 1440, which implies T = 15000.

Therefore, the total number of voters in the voter list is 15000, option (a) is the correct answer.

Two candidates X Y contested election

Q. Two candidates X and Y contested an election. 80% of voters cast their vote and there were no invalid votes. There was no NOTA (None of the above) option. X got 56% of the votes cast and won by 1440 votes. What is the total number of voters in the voters list? Read More »

Q. Statement-1 : Some doctors are teachers. Statement-2 : All teachers are engineers Statement-3 : All engineers are scientists.

Q. Statement-1 : Some doctors are teachers.
Statement-2 : All teachers are engineers
Statement-3 : All engineers are scientists.

Conclusion-I : Some scientists are doctors.
Conclusion-II : All engineers are doctors.
Conclusion-III : Some engineers are doctors.

Which one of the following is correct?
a. Only Conclusion-I
b. Only Conclusion-II
c. Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-III
d. Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II
Correct Answer: c. Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-III

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
From Statement-1 we know that some doctors are teachers.
From Statement-2 we know that all teachers are engineers.
Combining these two statements we can conclude that some doctors are engineers.
From Statement-3 we know that all engineers are scientists.

Some doctors are teachers

Therefore, combining this with the previous conclusion, we can conclude that some scientists are doctors (Conclusion-I).
Since only some doctors are engineers (not all), Conclusion-II is incorrect. However, since some doctors are engineers, Conclusion-III is correct.

Q. Statement-1 : Some doctors are teachers. Statement-2 : All teachers are engineers Statement-3 : All engineers are scientists. Read More »

Q. Consider the Question and two Statements given below in respect of three cities P, Q and R in a State:

Q. Consider the Question and two Statements given below in respect of three cities P, Q and R in a State:

Question: How far is city P from city Q?

Statement-1: City Q is 18 km from city R.
Statement-2: City P is 43 km from city R.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Question and the Statements?
a.    Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
b.   Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question
c.    Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 arc sufficient to answer the Question
d.   Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question
Correct Answer: d.   Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

How far is city P from city Q?

Correct Answer: d.   Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are not sufficient to answer the Question

This is because we do not know the relationship between the distances of city P from city Q and city R.

The distance between city P and city Q could be anywhere from 25 km (43 km – 18 km) to 61 km (43 km + 18 km), depending on whether cities P, Q and R are in a straight line or not. So we need more information to determine the exact distance between city P and city Q.

Q. Consider the Question and two Statements given below in respect of three cities P, Q and R in a State: Read More »

Q. Statement-1 : All pens are books. Statement-2 : No chair is a pen.

Q. Statement-1 : All pens are books.
Statement-2 : No chair is a pen.

Conclusion-I : All chairs are books.
Conclusion-II : Some chairs are pens.
Conclusion-III : All books are chairs.
Conclusion-IV : No chair is a book.

Which one of the following is correct?
a. Only Conclusion-I
b. Only Conclusion-II
c. Both Conclusion-III and Conclusion-IV
d. None of the Conclusions follows
Correct Answer: d. None of the Conclusions follows

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

All pens are books

Conclusion-I: All chairs are books.
Conclusion-III : All books are chairs.
The books that are pen can never be a chair. Hence, Conclusion-I and III are not true.
Conclusion-II : Some chairs are pens.
Statement 2 says No chair is a pen. So Conclusion-II is incorrect.
Conclusion-IV: No chair is a book. Here no direct relation is given between the chair and the book. so this statement is not accurately true.
Hence, the correct answer is an option(4) i.e., None of the Conclusions follows.

Q. Statement-1 : All pens are books. Statement-2 : No chair is a pen. Read More »