Explanation : 

Analysis of Statement I: “If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.”

• The 10th Schedule (Anti-defection Law) deals with disqualification on grounds of defection.
• If a question arises regarding disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the decision is referred to the Chairman (for Rajya Sabha) or the Speaker (for Lok Sabha) of such House, and their decision is final (though subject to judicial review).
• The President’s role in disqualification is primarily under Article 103, which deals with disqualifications mentioned in Article 102 (e.g., holding an office of profit, unsound mind, not being a citizen). In such cases, the President’s decision is final, but only after obtaining the opinion of the Election Commission and acting according to that opinion, not the Council of Union Ministers.

Therefore, Statement I is incorrect because the deciding authority for 10th Schedule disqualifications is the Speaker/Chairman, not the President, and even for Article 102 disqualifications, the President acts on the Election Commission’s advice, not the Council of Union Ministers.

Analysis of Statement II: “There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.”

• The word ‘political party’ is mentioned in the Constitution of India.
• Specifically, the Tenth Schedule (Anti-defection Law), added by the 52nd Amendment Act in 1985, explicitly uses the term ‘political party’ multiple times.
• Before the 52nd Amendment, the term ‘political party’ was not recognized in the Constitution, but its introduction with the Anti-defection law gave political parties constitutional recognition.

Therefore, Statement II is incorrect.

Explanation : 

Statement I.  This statement is correct.

Article 94 of the Constitution of India explicitly states that whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate their office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. This provision ensures the continuity of the office of the Speaker.

Statement II. This statement is incorrect.

There is no constitutional provision in India that mandates the Speaker to resign from their political party upon election. While it is a convention in some parliamentary democracies (like the UK) to ensure impartiality, it is not a constitutional requirement in India. In practice, the Speaker in India often does not resign from their party membership.

Statement III. This statement is correct.

Article 94(c) of the Constitution of India outlines the procedure for the removal of the Speaker. It states that the Speaker may be removed by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House, and no such resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Explanation : 

Statement I is correct: The Supreme Court of India has held that the President’s pardoning power, while broad, is not absolute and can be subjected to limited judicial review to prevent arbitrary, irrational, mala fide, or irrelevant exercise. Cases like Maru Ram v. Union of India (1981) and Kehar Singh v. Union of India (1988) affirm this, focusing on procedural fairness rather than merits.

Statement II is incorrect: The President cannot exercise pardoning power independently and must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers as per Article 74 of the Constitution. The Supreme Court has upheld this principle.

Therefore, only statement I is correct.

Explanation : 

Explanation : 

I. Dornier-228: Maritime patrol aircraft The Dornier-228 is indeed used by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard primarily for maritime surveillance, reconnaissance, and patrol missions. Thus, this pair is correctly matched.

II. IL-76: Supersonic combat aircraft The IL-76 is a strategic airlift aircraft of Russian origin, used by the Indian Air Force primarily for transport, logistics, and aerial refueling roles. It is not a supersonic combat aircraft. Thus, this pair is incorrectly matched.

III. C-17 Globemaster III: Military transport aircraft The C-17 Globemaster III is a large, strategic military transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force for rapid strategic airlift of troops and cargo. Thus, this pair is correctly matched.

Hence, two pairs (I and III) are correctly matched.

Explanation : 

Axiom-4: This mission is set to conduct numerous micro-gravity research experiments. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has shortlisted seven microgravity research experiments for Axiom-4, covering fields such as human health, material sciences, biotechnology, and agriculture. These experiments are expected to foster a microgravity research ecosystem in India.

SpaDeX: Primarily a space docking experiment, SpaDeX has also provided opportunities for microgravity research. It carried payloads for experiments, including a study of plant growth under microgravity, with cowpea seeds successfully germinating in space. The docking technology demonstrated by SpaDeX is essential for India’s future space station, critical for microgravity experiments.

Gaganyaan: India’s human spaceflight program, Gaganyaan, is designed to encourage and support microgravity research. ISRO plans to perform biological and physical science experiments related to microgravity during the mission. There is collaboration between the Department of Biotechnology and ISRO focused on space biotechnology research with emphasis on microgravity for Gaganyaan.

Therefore, all three missions encourage and support microgravity research.

Explanation : 

Statement I: Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.

• The National Rail Plan (NRP) prepared by Indian Railways aims to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2030, not 2028. The plan also envisions catering to demand up to 2050.
• Therefore, Statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.

• ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system developed indigenously by Indian Railways’ Research Designs & Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with Indian industries such as Medha Servo Drives, Kernex Microsystems, and HBL Power Systems.
  While global companies like Germany’s Siemens have been approved to install Kavach, the development itself was indigenous.
• Therefore, Statement II is incorrect.

Statement III: ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

• The Kavach system utilizes Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tags fitted on the tracks and read by RFID readers on locomotives to determine the train’s precise location.
• RFID tags are installed throughout the track length and are strategically placed along the tracks, including station sections.
• The statement does not claim RFID tags are only fitted in station sections.
  Therefore, Statement III is correct.

Based on the analysis:

Statement I is incorrect.
Statement II is incorrect.
Statement III is correct.
The question asks for the statements that are not correct.
Final answer: (a) I and II only.

Explanation : 

Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.

• Correct. Rare earth elements like europium, yttrium, and terbium are used to create red, green, and blue phosphors for vibrant colors in these displays.

Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

• Correct. Many rare earth elements exhibit phosphorescence and fluorescence. Europium and terbium are known for their phosphorescent properties.

Relationship:

• The phosphorescent properties of rare earth elements explain their use in flat-screen TVs and monitors, as they produce the luminescent phosphors essential for vibrant colors.

Conclusion:

• Both statements are correct, and Statement II explains Statement I.

Explanation : 

Statement I is incorrect.

• The 45th Chess Olympiad (September 10-23, 2024, Budapest) is a team event, not an individual championship.
• Gukesh Dommaraju became the youngest undisputed World Chess Champion by defeating Ding Liren in the World Chess Championship 2024 (November 25 – December 12, Singapore) at age 18.
• Gukesh defeated Ian Nepomniachtchi in the Candidates Tournament 2024, which determines the challenger for the World Championship, not the Olympiad final.

Statement II is correct.

• Abhimanyu Mishra, an American from New Jersey, became the world’s youngest Grandmaster on June 30, 2021, at 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days, breaking Sergey Karjakin’s record.

Correct Answer : (b) II only

Explanation : 

The first Kho Kho World Cup was held in New Delhi, India, from January 13 to 19, 2025, at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium.

Finals results:

• Indian men’s team defeated Nepal 54-36 to become World Champion.
• Indian women’s team defeated Nepal 78-40 to become World Champion.

Summary:

• Statement I is correct.
• Statement II is incorrect; the men’s score was 54-36, not 78-40.
• Statement III is incorrect; the women’s score was 78-40, not 54-36.

Therefore, only statement I is correct.