Prelims Solution

Q. Consider the following water bodies : I. Lake Tanganyika

Q. Consider the following water bodies :
I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the equator pass?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Correct Answer: (d) None

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

Lake Tanganyika: This major African Great Lake has coordinates of approximately 6°06′S 29°30′E. Since the equator is at 0° latitude, and the lake extends from 3° 20′ to 8° 48′ South, the equator does not pass through Lake Tanganyika itself.

Lake Tonlé Sap: This is a large freshwater lake in Cambodia, Southeast Asia. Cambodia is located entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, significantly north of the Equator. Therefore, the Equator does not pass through Lake Tonlé Sap.

Patos Lagoon: This is the largest lagoon in South America, located in the state of Rio Grande do Sul, Brazil. Rio Grande do Sul is the southernmost state of Brazil, far south of the Equator. The Equator passes through the northern part of Brazil, but not through Patos Lagoon.

Q. Consider the following water bodies : I. Lake Tanganyika Read More »

Q. For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

Q. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India :

I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer : (a) I and II only

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule:

  • The Seventh Schedule deals with the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States, containing the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
  • Any amendment to these lists directly impacts the federal division of powers.
  • Article 368(2) explicitly states that amendments seeking to make any change in “any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule” require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
  • Therefore, this statement is correct.

II. Extent of the executive power of a State:

  • The executive power of the Union and the States is a fundamental aspect of India’s federal system.
  • Article 368(2) explicitly includes “the extent of the executive power of the Union and States” (referring to Articles 73 and 162) as provisions that require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
  • Therefore, this statement is correct.

III. Conditions of the Governor’s office:

  • Option 3 is incorrect. Article 158 relates to the conditions of the Governor’s office. An amendment to Article 158 can be made by Parliament alone using the special majority procedure and does not require ratification by states.

Conclusion: (a) I and II only

Q. For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent? Read More »

Q. With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule

Q. Consider the following statements :

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule

I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration. This statement is incorrect.

  • The Constitution explicitly states that the executive power of a State extends to the Scheduled Areas within that State.
  • While the Fifth Schedule provides for special administration and the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) empowers local bodies like Gram Sabhas, the State Government does not lose its executive power.
  • The administration is carried out by the State Government, subject to the special provisions of the Fifth Schedule and the oversight of the Union Government.

II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor. This statement is incorrect.

  • Fifth Schedule allows the Union to issue directions to the State regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas but does not permit it to take over total administration. Such a takeover would require invocation of Article 356 (President’s Rule), which is a separate constitutional mechanism and not a provision under the Fifth Schedule. Hence statement II is not correct.

Conclusion: Therefore, (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

Q. With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule Read More »

Paragraph: Trust stands commonly defined as being vulnerable to others.

Paragraph: Trust stands commonly defined as being vulnerable to others.

Trust stands commonly defined as being vulnerable to others. Entrepreneurship implies trust in others and willingness to expose oneself to betrayal. Trust in expert systems is the essence of globalizing behaviour; trust itself emerges as a super-commodity in the social market and defines the characteristics of goods and services in a global market. Trusting conduct also means holding others in good esteem, and an optimism that they are, or will be, competent in certain respects.

Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?
(a) Trustworthiness cannot be expected in entrepreneurship.
(b) Trustworthy people are the most vulnerable people.
(c) No economic activity is possible without being exposed to betrayal.
(d) Trust is important though it entails risk.

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Correct Answer: (d) Trust is important though it entails risk.

Explanation: The passage emphasizes that trust involves vulnerability and the willingness to expose oneself to potential betrayal. It highlights trust as essential in entrepreneurship, globalizing behavior, and economic activities. Thus, the central idea is that trust is crucial despite the inherent risks involved.

Option-wise analysis:

(a) Incorrect. The passage does not imply that trustworthiness cannot be expected in entrepreneurship; rather, it emphasizes the necessity of trust.

(b) Incorrect. The passage does not claim trustworthy people are the most vulnerable; it states that trust itself involves vulnerability.

(c) Incorrect. The passage does not explicitly state that no economic activity is possible without betrayal; rather, it suggests that economic activities involve trust, which carries the risk of betrayal.

(d) Correct. Clearly captures the essence of the passage: trust is essential even though it involves risk and vulnerability.

Paragraph: Trust stands commonly defined as being vulnerable to others. Read More »

Paragraph: A single number for inflation is an aggregate across different commodities and services

Paragraph: A single number for inflation is an aggregate across different commodities and services

A single number for inflation is an aggregate across different commodities and services – the price rise differs for different items of consumption. So, the single number is arrived at by assigning weights to different commodities and services. For WPI, the weights in production are used; for CPI, the consumption basket is used. But people are not homogeneous. The consumption basket is vastly different for the poor, the middle classes, and the rich. Hence, the CPI is different for each of these classes and a composite index requires averaging the baskets.

Q1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage?
(a) We must use WPI exclusively in measuring price rise and CPI should be done away with.
(b) The present calculation of inflation rate does not correctly measure price rise of individual item/commodity.
(c) Inflation data under-presents services in the consumption basket.
(d) Knowledge of inflation rate is not really of any use to anybody in the country.

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Correct Answer: (b) The present calculation of inflation rate does not correctly measure price rise of individual item/commodity.

Explanation: The passage clearly explains that inflation is represented by a single number, which is an aggregate measure across various commodities and services. It emphasizes that the price rise differs significantly for different items and for different groups of people (poor, middle class, rich). Thus, the single inflation number does not accurately reflect the actual price rise experienced by individuals or specific commodities. Hence, option (b) correctly captures the most logical, rational, and crucial message conveyed by the passage.

Option-wise analysis:

(a) Incorrect. The passage does not suggest using WPI exclusively or discarding CPI.

(b) Correct. Matches the main idea of the passage.

(c) Incorrect. The passage does not specifically mention under-representation of services.

(d) Incorrect. The passage does not imply that inflation data is useless; rather, it highlights limitations in the current method of calculation.

Paragraph: A single number for inflation is an aggregate across different commodities and services Read More »

Paragraph: A network of voluntary associations stands as a ‘buffer’ between the relatively powerless individual and the potentially powerful State.

Paragraph: “A network of voluntary associations stands as a ‘buffer’ between the relatively powerless individual and the potentially powerful State.”

Q. Which one of the following statements reflects the best explanation of the above passage?
(a) It emphasizes the inability of the State to enforce its will in practice against the opposition of certain groups within it.
(b) It is a cooperative organization for the promotion of the well-being and development of the personality of its members.
(c) It takes individuals out of a state of isolation and gives them a chance to participate in the common endeavour.
(d) It permits citizens to have a variety of loyalties and allegiance.

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Correct Answer: (d) It permits citizens to have a variety of loyalties and allegiance.

Explanation:

  1. Understanding the Passage: The passage states voluntary associations act as a “buffer” between individuals and the powerful State, implying they protect individuals by providing alternative affiliations.

  2. Analyzing the Options:
    (a) Suggests conflict or opposition, which the passage doesn’t explicitly mention.
    (b) Talks about personal well-being, not directly addressing the State-individual relationship.
    (c) Highlights social participation, but doesn’t directly address protection from State power.
    (d) Clearly matches the passage by emphasizing multiple loyalties and allegiances, reducing State dominance.

  3. Answer: Option (d) best reflects the passage’s meaning, as voluntary associations allow citizens multiple loyalties, acting as a protective buffer against State power.

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

Paragraph: A network of voluntary associations stands as a ‘buffer’ between the relatively powerless individual and the potentially powerful State. Read More »

Q. There exists a natural number which when increased by 50% can have its number of factors unchanged.

Q. Consider the following statements:
I. There exists a natural number which when increased by 50% can have its number of factors unchanged.
II. There exists a natural number which when increased by 150% can have its number of factors unchanged.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: (c) Both I and II

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Explanation : 

Statement I (increase by 50% ⇒ factor unchanged)

Let n=2.
• 50% increase: 1.5·2 = 3
• Number of divisors of 2: d(2)=2 (1 and 2)
• Number of divisors of 3: d(3)=2 (1 and 3)
So d(2)=d(3). Hence I is true.

Statement II (increase by 150% ⇒ factor unchanged)

A simple example is n=6.
• 150% increase: 2.5·6 = 15
• d(6)=4 (1, 2, 3, 6)
• d(15)=4 (1, 3, 5, 15)
So d(6)=d(15). Hence II is true.

Since both statements are satisfied by concrete examples, the correct answer is (c) Both I and II.

Q. There exists a natural number which when increased by 50% can have its number of factors unchanged. Read More »

Paragraph: There has been no democracy that has grown economically without corporate capitalism.

Paragraph: There has been no democracy that has grown economically without corporate capitalism.

There has been no democracy that has grown economically without corporate capitalism. It helps in modernizing the economy and enabling the transition from rural to urban, and agriculture to industry and services, which are inevitable with growth. It generates jobs – and there is no other way to fix a country’s unemployment challenge without a further impetus to private business. Big companies can operate on a large scale and become competitive both domestically and externally. A vibrant corporate capitalist base also leads to additional revenues for the State – which in turn, can be used for greater welfare for the marginalized and creating a more level playing field in terms of opportunities.

Q1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?
(a) Corporate capitalism is important for economic growth of a State and also for democracy.
(b) Corporate capitalism is imperative for a modern State to achieve its political objectives.
(c) No State can ensure its economic survival for long without the role of corporate capitalism.
(d) Corporate capitalism and democracy have mutual dependence for their continued existence.

Q2. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
I. Corporate capitalism promotes the growth of labour force and provides more employment opportunities.
II. Poor and marginalized sections of population are benefited by corporate capitalism due to trickle-down effect.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Q1. Correct Option: (a) Corporate capitalism is important for economic growth of a State and also for democracy.

Explanation: The passage clearly emphasizes the importance of corporate capitalism in achieving economic growth and modernization. It states explicitly that no democracy has grown economically without corporate capitalism. The author highlights how corporate capitalism helps in modernizing the economy, transitioning from rural to urban areas, generating employment, and providing additional revenues for welfare measures. Thus, the critical message conveyed by the author is best reflected in option (a).

Option (b) is incorrect because the passage does not specifically link corporate capitalism to achieving political objectives. Option (c) is incorrect because the passage does not claim that economic survival is impossible without corporate capitalism, only that growth and modernization are closely linked to it. Option (d) is incorrect because the passage does not explicitly state mutual dependence between democracy and corporate capitalism; rather, it emphasizes the importance of corporate capitalism for economic growth within democracies.

Q2. Correct Option: (c) Both I and II

Explanation: Let’s examine each assumption separately:

Assumption I: “Corporate capitalism promotes the growth of labour force and provides more employment opportunities.”

  • The passage explicitly states that corporate capitalism generates jobs and is essential to addressing unemployment challenges. Thus, assumption I is valid.

Assumption II: “Poor and marginalized sections of population are benefited by corporate capitalism due to trickle-down effect.”

  • The passage clearly mentions that a vibrant corporate capitalist base leads to additional revenues for the State, which can then be used for greater welfare for marginalized sections and creating a more level playing field. This implies a trickle-down effect benefiting poorer sections. Thus, assumption II is also valid.

Therefore, both assumptions I and II are valid according to the passage. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Paragraph: There has been no democracy that has grown economically without corporate capitalism. Read More »

Paragraph: A good statesman, like any other sensible human being, learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters.

Paragraph: A good statesman, like any other sensible human being, learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters.

“A good statesman, like any other sensible human being, learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters. For his supporters will push him to disaster unless his opponents show him where the dangers are. So if he is wise he will often pray to be delivered from his friends, because they will ruin him. But, though it hurts, he ought also to pray never to be left without opponents; for they keep him on the path of reason and good sense. The national unity of free people depends upon a sufficiently even balance of political power to make it impracticable for the administration to be arbitrary and for opposition to be revolutionary and irreconcilable.”

Q1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?
(a) Without opposition parties, the administration in a democracy gets to become more responsible.
(b) Democracy needs to have revolutionaries in opposition to keep the government alert.
(c) Rulers in a democracy need the support of opposition for their political survival.
(d) In a democracy, the opposition is indispensable for the balance of political power and good governance.

Q2. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
I. In a democracy, a strong opposition is required only if the Head of Government is indifferent.
II. The more aggressive the opposition, the better is the governance in a democracy.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Q1. Correct Option: (d) In a democracy, the opposition is indispensable for the balance of political power and good governance.

Explanation: The passage emphasizes the importance of opposition in a democracy. It clearly states that a wise statesman learns more from opponents than from supporters, as opponents highlight dangers and keep the leader on the path of reason and good sense. The author further argues that national unity and good governance depend upon a balanced political power structure, where the administration cannot become arbitrary and the opposition does not become revolutionary. Thus, option (d) accurately captures the critical message conveyed by the author.

Q2. Correct Option: (d) Neither I nor II

Explanation: Let’s examine each assumption separately:

Assumption I: “In a democracy, a strong opposition is required only if the Head of Government is indifferent.”

  • The passage does not suggest that opposition is needed only when the Head of Government is indifferent. Rather, it argues that opposition is always necessary to maintain balance, reason, and good governance, irrespective of the attitude or competence of the Head of Government. Thus, assumption I is invalid.

Assumption II: “The more aggressive the opposition, the better is the governance in a democracy.”

  • The passage emphasizes the importance of opposition but does not imply that aggression or hostility from the opposition necessarily leads to better governance. Instead, it advocates for a balanced opposition that prevents arbitrary administration and revolutionary opposition. Aggression or hostility is not mentioned as beneficial. Thus, assumption II is also invalid.

Therefore, neither assumption I nor assumption II is valid according to the passage. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Paragraph: A good statesman, like any other sensible human being, learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters. Read More »

Paragraph: It is hard to predict how changes in the climate and the atmosphere’s chemistry will affect the prevalence and virulence of agricultural diseases.

Paragraph: It is hard to predict how changes in the climate and the atmosphere’s chemistry..

It is hard to predict how changes in the climate and the atmosphere’s chemistry will affect the prevalence and virulence of agricultural diseases. But there is a risk that such changes will make some plant infections more common in all climatic zones, perhaps catastrophically so. Part of the problem is that centuries of selective breeding have refined the genomes of most high-value crops. They are spectacular at growing in today’s conditions but genetic variations that are not immediately useful to them have been bred out. This is good for yields but bad for coping with changes. A minor disease or even an unknown one could suddenly rampage through a genetically honed crop.

Q1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?
(a) Global climate change adversely affects the productivity of crops.
(b) Our total dependence on genetically honed crops entails possible food insecurity.
(c) Our food security should not depend on agricultural productivity alone.
(d) Genetically honed crops should be replaced with their wild varieties in our present cultivation practices.

Q2. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
I. Global climate change can result in the migration of several plant diseases to new areas.
II. Scientific understanding of the wild relatives of our present crops would enable us to strengthen food security.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Q1. Correct Answer: (b) Our total dependence on genetically honed crops entails possible food insecurity.

Explanation: The passage emphasizes the risks associated with relying heavily on genetically refined crops. It points out that selective breeding has optimized crops for current conditions, but at the cost of genetic diversity. This lack of genetic variation makes crops vulnerable to new or minor diseases, especially under changing climatic conditions. Thus, the central idea conveyed is that our heavy dependence on genetically honed crops could lead to potential food insecurity if unexpected diseases emerge or conditions change significantly.

Option (a) is incorrect because the passage does not explicitly state that climate change directly reduces crop productivity; rather, it highlights the vulnerability of genetically refined crops to diseases under changing conditions.

Option (c) is incorrect because the passage does not discuss alternative methods of ensuring food security beyond agricultural productivity.

Option (d) is incorrect because the passage does not suggest completely replacing genetically honed crops with wild varieties; it only highlights the risks associated with the lack of genetic diversity.

Thus, option (b) best captures the central idea of the passage.


Q2. Correct Answer: (a) I only

Explanation: Assumption I: “Global climate change can result in the migration of several plant diseases to new areas.” This assumption is valid. The passage explicitly mentions that changes in climate and atmospheric chemistry could make some plant infections more common in all climatic zones. This clearly implies that climate change could cause plant diseases to spread or migrate to new regions.

Assumption II: “Scientific understanding of the wild relatives of our present crops would enable us to strengthen food security.” This assumption is invalid. Although the passage mentions the loss of genetic variation due to selective breeding, it does not explicitly or implicitly suggest that studying wild relatives of crops would strengthen food security. The passage only highlights the vulnerability caused by genetic refinement, without mentioning wild relatives or their potential benefits.

Therefore, only assumption I is valid, making option (a) the correct choice.

Paragraph: It is hard to predict how changes in the climate and the atmosphere’s chemistry will affect the prevalence and virulence of agricultural diseases. Read More »