Prelims 2025 GS Solution

Q. Consider the following water bodies : I. Lake Tanganyika

Q. Consider the following water bodies :
I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the equator pass?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Correct Answer: (d) None

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

Lake Tanganyika: This major African Great Lake has coordinates of approximately 6°06′S 29°30′E. Since the equator is at 0° latitude, and the lake extends from 3° 20′ to 8° 48′ South, the equator does not pass through Lake Tanganyika itself.

Lake Tonlé Sap: This is a large freshwater lake in Cambodia, Southeast Asia. Cambodia is located entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, significantly north of the Equator. Therefore, the Equator does not pass through Lake Tonlé Sap.

Patos Lagoon: This is the largest lagoon in South America, located in the state of Rio Grande do Sul, Brazil. Rio Grande do Sul is the southernmost state of Brazil, far south of the Equator. The Equator passes through the northern part of Brazil, but not through Patos Lagoon.

Q. Consider the following water bodies : I. Lake Tanganyika Read More »

Q. For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

Q. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India :

I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer : (a) I and II only

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule:

  • The Seventh Schedule deals with the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States, containing the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
  • Any amendment to these lists directly impacts the federal division of powers.
  • Article 368(2) explicitly states that amendments seeking to make any change in “any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule” require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
  • Therefore, this statement is correct.

II. Extent of the executive power of a State:

  • The executive power of the Union and the States is a fundamental aspect of India’s federal system.
  • Article 368(2) explicitly includes “the extent of the executive power of the Union and States” (referring to Articles 73 and 162) as provisions that require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
  • Therefore, this statement is correct.

III. Conditions of the Governor’s office:

  • Option 3 is incorrect. Article 158 relates to the conditions of the Governor’s office. An amendment to Article 158 can be made by Parliament alone using the special majority procedure and does not require ratification by states.

Conclusion: (a) I and II only

Q. For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent? Read More »

Q. With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule

Q. Consider the following statements :

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule

I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration. This statement is incorrect.

  • The Constitution explicitly states that the executive power of a State extends to the Scheduled Areas within that State.
  • While the Fifth Schedule provides for special administration and the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) empowers local bodies like Gram Sabhas, the State Government does not lose its executive power.
  • The administration is carried out by the State Government, subject to the special provisions of the Fifth Schedule and the oversight of the Union Government.

II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor. This statement is incorrect.

  • Fifth Schedule allows the Union to issue directions to the State regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas but does not permit it to take over total administration. Such a takeover would require invocation of Article 356 (President’s Rule), which is a separate constitutional mechanism and not a provision under the Fifth Schedule. Hence statement II is not correct.

Conclusion: Therefore, (d) Neither I nor II is correct.

Q. With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule Read More »

Q. Consider the following pairs : Region : Country I. Mallorca : Italy II. Normandy : Spain III. Sardinia : France

Q. Consider the following pairs :
Region : Country

I. Mallorca : Italy
II. Normandy : Spain
III. Sardinia : France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Correct Answer : (d) None

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

I. Mallorca : Mallorca is the largest of the Balearic Islands, which are an autonomous community of Spain. Therefore, Mallorca is part of Spain, not Italy. This pair is incorrect.

II. Normandy : Normandy is a historical and cultural region located in northwestern France. It is well-known for its role in World War II (D-Day landings). Therefore, Normandy is part of France, not Spain. This pair is incorrect.

III. Sardinia : Sardinia is the second-largest island in the Mediterranean Sea and is one of the twenty regions of Italy. It is located south of the French island of Corsica, but it is an Italian region. This pair is incorrect.

Based on the analysis, none of the given pairs are correctly matched.

Q. Consider the following pairs : Region : Country I. Mallorca : Italy II. Normandy : Spain III. Sardinia : France Read More »

Q. Consider the following pairs : Country : Resource-rich in I. Botswana : Diamond II. Chile : Lithium III. Indonesia : Nickel

Q. Consider the following pairs :
Country : Resource-rich in
I. Botswana : Diamond
II. Chile : Lithium
III. Indonesia : Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Correct Answer : (c) All the three

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

I. Botswana : Diamond Botswana is widely recognized as being rich in diamonds. It is one of the world’s largest producers of diamonds by value and volume, and diamonds are the major economic resource of the country, contributing significantly to its GDP and export earnings. This pair is correct.

II. Chile : Lithium Chile holds the largest lithium reserves in the world and is a key player in the global lithium market. This pair is correct.

III. Indonesia : Nickel Indonesia has the largest annual production and reserves of nickel in the world. This pair is correct.

All three rows provide correctly matched information.

Q. Consider the following pairs : Country : Resource-rich in I. Botswana : Diamond II. Chile : Lithium III. Indonesia : Nickel Read More »

Q. Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?

Q. Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?

(a) ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
(b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Bhaskarrao Jadhav
(d) Dinkarrao Javalkar

Correct Answer : (a) ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

The Self-Respect Movement was founded by ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker. He established the movement in 1925 after leaving the Indian National Congress due to its failure to address caste discrimination and challenge Brahminical dominance. The movement aimed to promote self-respect, rational thinking, and social equality, focusing on eradicating caste oppression and advancing women’s rights.

Q. Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’? Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers

Q. Consider the following statements:
I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.
II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer : (a) I only

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

Statement I: Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are geographically close, separated by the Bering Strait and the International Date Line. The flight distance between Anadyr and Nome is approximately 813 km (500 miles). Anadyr is in the UTC+12 time zone, while Nome is in the Alaska Time Zone, which is UTC-9 during standard time (AKST) and UTC-8 during daylight saving time (AKDT). This significant time difference, spanning the International Date Line, means that when people are waking up and getting ready for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days. For example, a flight from Nome to Chukotka (where Anadyr is located) requires setting your watch 20 hours ahead. Therefore, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: Anadyr (UTC+12) is located west of the International Date Line, and Nome (UTC-8 or UTC-9) is located east of the International Date Line. Locations west of the IDL are typically a day ahead of locations east of the IDL. If it is Monday in Anadyr, Nome, being significantly behind in time and across the International Date Line, would be on the previous day, which is Sunday, not Tuesday. Therefore, Statement II is incorrect.

Q. Consider the following statements: I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers Read More »

Q. Consider the following countries : I. United Kingdom II. Denmark. III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil

Q. Consider the following countries :
I. United Kingdom
II. Denmark
III. New Zealand
IV. Australia
V. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

(a) All the five
(b) Only four
(c) Only three
(d) Only two

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

United Kingdom: The United Kingdom, including its overseas territories, has 9 time zones. 

Denmark: Denmark, encompassing its mainland and dependencies like Greenland and the Faroe Islands, spans five or six time zones.

New Zealand: New Zealand has two main time zones (New Zealand Standard Time and Chatham Standard Time). When including its dependencies such as Tokelau, Cook Islands, and Niue, the total number of time zones associated with New Zealand is more than four.

Australia: Australia has three main time zones on its mainland. However, when accounting for its external territories, Australia has a total of 9 time zones.

Brazil: Brazil is divided into four standard time zones, including its offshore islands.

Therefore, four of the listed countries have more than four time zones.

Q. Consider the following countries : I. United Kingdom II. Denmark. III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil Read More »

Q. How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

Q. Consider the following fruits:
I. Papaya
II. Pineapple
III. Guava

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Correct Answer : (c) All the three

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

All three fruits listed – Papaya, Pineapple, and Guava – were introduced to India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries.

Papaya: Papaya was introduced to India in the 16th century, brought by the Portuguese from the Americas, likely via the Caribbean and then Malaysia around 1550.

Pineapple: Pineapple cultivation was introduced to India by the Portuguese in 1548 AD, bringing it from Brazil.

Guava: Guava, native to tropical America, was introduced to India by the Portuguese in the early 17th century.

Therefore, all three fruits were introduced by the Portuguese during the specified period.

Q. How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries? Read More »

Q. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?

Q. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?

(a) The Poona Pact
(b) The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
(c) Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
(d) Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

Correct Answer : (a) The Poona Pact

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

The event subsequent to which Gandhiji decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme was The Poona Pact.

The Poona Pact (1932): This pact was a direct consequence of Mahatma Gandhi’s fast unto death in protest against the Communal Award, which proposed separate electorates for the Depressed Classes (Dalits). Gandhi believed that separate electorates would permanently segregate the untouchables from the Hindu community. The Poona Pact, signed between Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar, replaced separate electorates with reserved seats for Dalits within the general electorate.

Following this intense period, Gandhi dedicated himself more vigorously to the cause of eradicating untouchability. He launched the All India Anti-Untouchability League (later renamed Harijan Sevak Sangh) and started the weekly paper Harijan to propagate his views and work for the social, economic, and educational upliftment of the untouchables, whom he called ‘Harijans’ (children of God). This marked a significant shift where the upliftment of Harijans became an explicit and central part of his political and social agenda.


The other options are less directly related to this specific shift in Gandhi’s program:

  • The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact) (1931): This agreement was primarily about ending the Civil Disobedience Movement and addressing political demands, not specifically about the Harijan upliftment program.

  • Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement (1942): This was a much later event related to the broader independence struggle. By this time, Harijan upliftment was already a well-established part of Gandhi’s work.

  • Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935: While this act had significant constitutional implications, it was not the direct catalyst for Gandhi’s decision to specifically include Harijan upliftment in his political and social program in the way the Poona Pact was.

Q. Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme? Read More »