Prelims Solution

Q. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.

Q. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: b) 1, 2 and 4 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Monazite as a Source of Rare Earth Elements

Monazite is indeed a source of rare earth elements, which are critical for a variety of modern technologies. It is a phosphate mineral that contains thorium, a radioactive element, as well as rare earth elements. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Occurrence of Monazite in Indian Coastal Sands

Statement 3 is not entirely accurate. While monazite does occur in coastal sands, it is not found along the entire Indian coastline. It is mainly found in the heavy mineral sands of the beaches of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Odisha. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands.

Mining and Processing of Monazite in India

Statement 4 is correct. In India, the mining and processing of monazite are restricted and can only be carried out by government or government-authorized entities due to its thorium content, which has strategic importance as a nuclear fuel. The Atomic Minerals Concession Rules, 2016, under the Atomic Energy Act of 1962, regulate the mining and handling of monazite.

Thus, the statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct, making the correct answer: 1, 2, and 4 only.

Q. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths. Read More »

Q. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

Q. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

a) Database created by coalition organisations of Research organisations
b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank
Correct Answer: Database created by coalition organisations of Research organisations

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Climate Action Tracker (CAT)

The Climate Action Tracker (CAT) is an independent scientific analysis produced by two research organizations: Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute. It tracks government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed aims of the Paris Agreement, to hold warming well below 2°C, and to pursue efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C. CAT assesses individual national pledges, called Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), and their implementation.

The Climate Action Tracker is a database and analytical tool created by a coalition of research organizations to provide up-to-date information on countries’ progress and commitments towards reducing greenhouse gas emissions. It is a resource for policymakers, researchers, and the public to understand how actions align with the objectives of limiting global warming and to encourage more ambitious climate action.

Q. “Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a: Read More »

Q. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

Q. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
b) 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
c) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Correct Answer: 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Major solar storm and its potential effects

A major solar storm, also known as a geomagnetic storm, is caused by solar activities like solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs) that send large amounts of charged particles towards Earth. These particles interact with Earth’s magnetosphere and can have several effects on our planet. Let’s look at each of the listed potential effects:

1. GPS and navigation systems could fail:

Correct. The charged particles can disrupt the signals from GPS satellites, leading to inaccuracies or complete failure of navigation systems that rely on GPS.

2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions:

Incorrect. Tsunamis are caused by underwater earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or other underwater explosions, and not by solar activity.

3. Power grids could be damaged:

Correct. The geomagnetic currents induced by a solar storm can overload power grids and potentially cause transformers to fail, leading to widespread power outages.

4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth:

Correct. Auroras are typically seen near the polar regions, but a strong solar storm can expand the auroral zone, making auroras visible at lower latitudes.

5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet:

Incorrect. Forest fires are not directly caused by solar storms. They are typically the result of lightning, human activities, or other natural causes.

6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed:

Correct. The increased density of the Earth’s atmosphere during a solar storm can increase drag on satellites in low Earth orbit, potentially altering their paths.

7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted:

Correct. The ionospheric disturbances caused by solar storms can disrupt high-frequency (HF) radio communications, which are often used by aircraft flying over the poles where satellite communication can be unreliable.

Q. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? Read More »

Q. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

Q. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
Correct Answer: d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Importance of Wetlands in Environmental Health

The statement “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys” is an analogy that compares the role of wetlands in the environment to the role of kidneys in the human body. Just as kidneys filter and remove waste products and excess substances from the bloodstream, thus helping to maintain the body’s internal environment, wetlands perform a similar function for the Earth’s water systems.

Wetlands as Earth’s Natural Filters

The correct answer, “Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients,” best reflects the analogy because it describes how wetlands act as natural filters for the environment. Here’s a breakdown of how this function is similar to that of kidneys:

  • Filtering Waste: Wetlands filter out pollutants from the water, including heavy metals and excess nutrients, much like kidneys filter out waste products from the blood.
  • Maintaining Balance: Just as kidneys help to regulate the balance of electrolytes and other substances in the body, wetlands help to maintain the chemical balance of water ecosystems by absorbing and transforming excess nutrients that could otherwise lead to problems like eutrophication, which is the over-enrichment of water bodies with nutrients, leading to excessive growth of algae and depletion of oxygen.
  • Detoxification: Wetlands can break down or store harmful pollutants, similar to how kidneys detoxify the blood by removing toxins and converting them into less harmful substances that can be excreted.

The other options, while they describe important functions of wetlands, do not directly relate to the analogy of wetlands being the Earth’s “kidneys“:

  • The water cycle in wetlands is more akin to the circulation of fluids in the body rather than the specific filtering function of kidneys.
  • Algae forming the nutrient base for other organisms is related to the food chain and productivity of the ecosystem, not to the filtering and regulatory role of kidneys.
  • Maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization is more about physical support and erosion control than the specific cleansing and filtering function that the kidneys perform.

Therefore, the function of aquatic plants absorbing heavy metals and excess nutrients is the one that best reflects the idea of wetlands functioning as the Earth’s kidneys, providing a vital cleansing and balancing role in the environment.

Q. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement? Read More »

Q. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

Q. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

a) Cauvery
b) Manjira
c) Pennar
d) Tungabhadra
Correct Answer: c) Pennar

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Gandikota: Grand Canyon of India

Gandikota is often referred to as the “Grand Canyon of India” due to its majestic gorge formed by the Pennar River cutting through the Erramala hills in Andhra Pradesh, South India. This impressive canyon is known for its stunning landscapes and the ancient Gandikota fort, which overlooks the gorge.

The Pennar River, which is the correct answer, is responsible for creating this natural marvel. Over millions of years, the river has eroded the rock, carving a deep canyon with steep rocky walls. The Pennar River is one of the major rivers in the Deccan Plateau of southern India, and it flows through the states of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal.

The other rivers listed—Cauvery, Manjira, and Tungabhadra—also flow in southern India but are not associated with the formation of the Gandikota canyon. The Cauvery River is known for creating a different set of landscapes, including the famous Hogenakkal Falls. The Manjira is a tributary of the Godavari River, and the Tungabhadra is a tributary of the Krishna River. Each of these rivers has its own unique path and geological influence, but it is the Pennar River that is credited with the creation of the Gandikota canyon.

Q. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? Read More »

Q. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: b) 3 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) Overview

The Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM), initially known as the National Digital Health Mission, is a significant initiative by the Government of India. Its goal is to construct the necessary infrastructure for an integrated digital health ecosystem. The ABDM strives to connect various stakeholders in the healthcare sector through digital means.

Adoption by Hospitals

Contrary to the belief that all private and public hospitals must adopt the ABDM, the initiative is not compulsory. It is designed to be an inclusive and voluntary program. Healthcare providers are encouraged to join and integrate into the digital health ecosystem by complying with the standards set forth by the mission.

Universal Health Coverage and Citizen Participation

Although the ABDM aims to facilitate universal health coverage, it does not require mandatory participation from every Indian citizen. The initiative allows citizens to voluntarily enroll for a digital health ID, which is used to manage their personal health records. The mission’s objective is to make healthcare more accessible but not to enforce enrollment.

Portability of Health Records

A pivotal feature of the ABDM is the portability of health records across India. This ensures that a patient’s health data can be securely accessed and shared among various healthcare providers, regardless of their location. The patient’s consent is essential for the sharing of this information, maintaining the privacy and security of health data.

Q. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3 (Official Answer)

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Power to Issue Writs in India’s Judicial System

In India, the High Courts and the Supreme Court hold the authority to issue writs for enforcing the fundamental rights of citizens, as well as for other purposes. These writs, which are an integral part of the common law system, have been borrowed from English law and include Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto.

Analysis of Statements Regarding the Issuance of Writs

The writ of Mandamus is a directive from a court to a lower court, tribunal, or public authority, compelling them to perform a mandatory act. It is generally not applicable to private entities unless they are tasked with a public duty. In such cases, Mandamus can be issued to enforce the performance of that public duty.

Second statement, According to UPSC Official Answer key – it is correct.

The writ of Quo Warranto provides a means to challenge the legality of an individual’s claim to a public office. It allows any public-spirited individual, not necessarily personally aggrieved, to petition the court. This ensures that any person occupying a public office does so legitimately and in the interest of maintaining the integrity of public service.

In conclusion, statements 1 and 3 accurately reflect the provisions related to the issuance of writs in the Indian judicial system, confirming that the correct answer is “1 and 3 only”.

Q. With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Attorney General and Solicitor General’s Roles in Indian Parliament

The Attorney General of India is often mistaken to have the same parliamentary privileges as the Solicitor General of India. However, this is not the case. The Attorney General has the unique right to participate in the proceedings of the Parliament of India, as stated in Article 88 of the Indian Constitution. This includes the right to speak in both Houses of Parliament and any committee meetings, though without a right to vote. On the other hand, the Solicitor General, who assists the Attorney General, does not possess these rights.

Resignation of the Attorney General of India

Another common misconception is regarding the resignation of the Attorney General. According to Article 76 of the Indian Constitution, the Attorney General holds office at the pleasure of the President and is not constitutionally required to resign when the appointing government resigns or is replaced. While it is conventional for the Attorney General to resign in such circumstances, it is not mandated by the Constitution.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. Read More »

Q. With reference to anti-defection law in India

Q. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: b) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Anti-Defection Law in India

The anti-defection law in India is a significant legislation that maintains the stability of governments by preventing elected members from switching parties. This law is outlined in the Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which was introduced by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985.

Nominated Members and Defection

Contrary to common belief, the anti-defection law provides a clear guideline for nominated members. These members are given a six-month period to align with a political party upon taking their seat in the House. Failure to adhere to this timeframe results in disqualification due to defection.

Time Frame for Decision on Defection Cases

A critical aspect of the anti-defection law is the lack of a specified time frame for the presiding officer to decide on defection cases. The absence of such a deadline has been a point of contention, as it can lead to prolonged delays in adjudication, potentially being exploited for political gains.

Q. With reference to anti-defection law in India Read More »

Q. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

Q. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

a) Lake Victoria
b) Lake Faguibine
c) Lake Oguta
d) Lake Volta
Correct Answer: b) Lake Faguibine

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Factors Contributing to the Drying of Lake Faguibine

Several factors have contributed to the drying of Lake Faguibine:

1. Climate Change: The Sahel region, where Lake Faguibine is located, has been subject to prolonged periods of drought since the late 20th century. Climate change has exacerbated these conditions, leading to reduced rainfall and higher temperatures, which increase evaporation rates.

2. Water Management: Upstream water management, including the construction of dams and irrigation systems, has altered the natural flow of the Niger River. This has reduced the amount of water reaching Lake Faguibine and other lakes in the region.

3. Overuse of Resources: The increasing demand for agricultural land and water for irrigation has led to the overuse of the limited water resources available, further depleting the lake.

4. Desertification: The process of desertification in the region, partly due to human activities such as overgrazing and deforestation, has also contributed to the drying of the lake.

As a result of these factors, Lake Faguibine has shrunk significantly, and large portions of the lakebed have become dry, leading to the loss of aquatic habitats, affecting local biodiversity, and impacting the livelihoods of the communities that depend on the lake for fishing, agriculture, and livestock.

In contrast to Lake Faguibine, the other lakes listed—Lake Victoria, Lake Oguta, and Lake Volta—have not experienced the same level of drying and desertification. Lake Victoria is one of the African Great Lakes and is the largest lake in Africa by area. Lake Oguta is a smaller lake in Nigeria, and Lake Volta is a large reservoir in Ghana formed by the Akosombo Dam on the Volta River. These lakes continue to hold significant amounts of water, although they may face their own environmental challenges.

Q. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert? Read More »