Prelims Solution

Q. “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in:

Q. “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in:

1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

System of Rice Intensification (SRI)

The System of Rice Intensification (SRI) is an agricultural methodology aimed at increasing the yield of rice produced in farming. It is a low-water, labor-intensive method that changes how rice is grown around the world.

Reduced seed requirement

SRI practices involve planting young and singly spaced seedlings, which means fewer seeds are needed to plant the same area of land compared to traditional methods where seeds are often broadcast more densely. This can lead to a significant reduction in the amount of seed required for planting.

Reduced methane production

Methane is a potent greenhouse gas, and rice paddies are a significant source of methane emissions due to the anaerobic decomposition of organic matter in the flooded fields. SRI involves alternate wetting and drying of fields rather than continuous flooding, which introduces oxygen into the soil and reduces the anaerobic conditions that lead to methane production. As a result, SRI can lead to a reduction in methane emissions from rice cultivation.

Reduced electricity consumption

In many agricultural regions, water for irrigation is pumped from underground sources or diverted from rivers using electric pumps. Since SRI requires less water due to the alternate wetting and drying cycles, there is a reduced need for irrigation. Consequently, this leads to a reduction in the electricity consumed for pumping water, assuming that electric pumps are used for irrigation.

Therefore, all three outcomes (1, 2, and 3) are associated with the adoption of the System of Rice Intensification, making the correct answer “1, 2 and 3“.

Q. “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: Read More »

Q. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

Q. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

a) Cotton
b) Rice
c) Sugarcane
d) Wheat
Correct Answer: b) Rice

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Rice Cultivation: A Major Source of Greenhouse Gases

Rice cultivation is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane (CH4) and nitrous oxide (N2O) among the crops listed. The primary reason for this is the unique water management and soil conditions associated with paddy fields, where rice is typically grown.

Methane is a potent greenhouse gas with a global warming potential many times greater than that of carbon dioxide over a 100-year period. It is produced by anaerobic decomposition of organic matter in waterlogged soils, which is a common condition in rice paddies. When rice fields are flooded, oxygen levels in the water drop, creating an anaerobic environment that is conducive to the activity of methanogenic archaea, microorganisms that produce methane as a byproduct of their metabolism.

Role of Water Management in Methane Emission

Water management in rice paddies is a critical factor in methane emission. The flooding of fields leads to anaerobic conditions necessary for methanogenic archaea to thrive. These microorganisms are responsible for the production of methane in the absence of oxygen.

Nitrous Oxide Emissions from Rice Paddies

Nitrous oxide, another powerful greenhouse gas with a long atmospheric lifetime, is produced by the microbial processes of nitrification and denitrification in soils. These processes are influenced by factors such as soil type, temperature, moisture, and the availability of nitrogen from fertilizers. In rice paddies, the application of nitrogenous fertilizers and the alternating wet and dry conditions can enhance the production of nitrous oxide.

Comparing Greenhouse Gas Emissions from Different Crops

While other crops like wheat and sugarcane also contribute to greenhouse gas emissions, particularly when fertilizers are used, the waterlogged conditions specific to rice cultivation make it a more significant source of both methane and nitrous oxide. Cotton, on the other hand, is not typically associated with waterlogged conditions and therefore does not contribute as significantly to methane emissions, although it can be a source of nitrous oxide due to fertilizer use.

Q. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide? Read More »

Q. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer: a) 1 and 3 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha holds a significant role within the Indian parliamentary system. Understanding the rules and conventions that govern this position is essential for grasping the functioning of India’s democracy.

Election Date Set by Speaker

As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of the Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. This aligns with Rule 8 of the said rules, confirming the statement as correct.

No Mandatory Provision for Party Affiliation

Contrary to some beliefs, there is no mandatory provision that dictates the election of a Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha to be necessarily from the principal opposition party or the ruling party. This absence of a constitutional or procedural mandate makes the second statement incorrect.

Powers of the Deputy Speaker

When the Deputy Speaker presides over a sitting of the House, they wield the same powers as that of the Speaker. No appeal can be made against the rulings of the Deputy Speaker, thus emphasizing the authority and finality of their decisions.

Appointment Practice

It is a common misconception that the motion for the election of the Deputy Speaker is exclusively moved by the Speaker and seconded by the Prime Minister. In reality, any member of the House can move the motion, which is typically done by consensus. This clarifies that the fourth statement is incorrect.

Q. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

Q. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Correct Answer: b) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Lok Sabha Exclusive Powers in India’s Bicameral Parliament

The Lok Sabha, which is the lower house of India’s bicameral Parliament, holds several key powers within the government structure. Among these powers, some are exclusive to the Lok Sabha, distinguishing its role from that of the Rajya Sabha, the upper house.

Ratification of Emergency Declaration

The power to ratify a declaration of Emergency is not exclusive to the Lok Sabha. Both Houses of Parliament, which include the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, need to approve the proclamation of Emergency within one month of the issuance. This approval requires a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting, as per Article 352 of the Indian Constitution.

No-Confidence Motion Against the Council of Ministers

The Lok Sabha does have the exclusive power to pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. This is a significant power as the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. If a motion of no-confidence is passed by the Lok Sabha, the Council of Ministers is obligated to resign. The provision for this power is found in Article 75 of the Indian Constitution.

Impeachment of the President of India

The impeachment process of the President of India is not an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha. It can be initiated by either House of Parliament. The process involves the signing of impeachment charges by one-fourth of the members of the House and a subsequent 14-day notice period to the President. Following the framing of charges, they must be passed by a two-thirds majority of the total membership of that House. The other House then investigates the charges, and if they also pass the resolution by a two-thirds majority of the total membership, the President is impeached as outlined in Article 61 of the Indian Constitution.

In conclusion, among the options provided, the exclusive power of the Lok Sabha is “2 only,” which refers to the ability to pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.

Q. Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? Read More »

Consider the following countries: 1. Azerbaijan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekstan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

Q. Consider the following countries:
1. Azerbaijan
2. Kyrgyzstan
3. Tajikistan
4. Turkmenistan
5. Uzbekstan

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

a) 1, 2 and 5 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer: c) 3, 4 and 5 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Countries Sharing a Border with Afghanistan

Among the listed countries, the ones that share a border with Afghanistan are:

3. Tajikistan

It shares a significant border with Afghanistan to the south, which includes a long stretch along the Panj River and the Wakhan Corridor, a narrow strip of land connecting Afghanistan with China.

4. Turkmenistan

It has a border with Afghanistan to the southeast. The border is relatively short compared to Tajikistan’s and runs along the Amu Darya River.

5. Uzbekistan

It shares a border with Afghanistan to the south. The border is not very long and is marked by the Amu Darya River as well.

The other two countries listed do not border Afghanistan:

1. Azerbaijan: It is located to the northwest of the Caspian Sea and does not share a border with Afghanistan. It is separated from Afghanistan by the Caspian Sea and several countries, including Turkmenistan and Iran.

2. Kyrgyzstan: It is located further to the northeast and does not share a border with Afghanistan. It is separated from Afghanistan by Tajikistan and Uzbekistan.

Therefore, the correct answer is “3, 4 and 5 only” as these are the countries that have borders with Afghanistan.

Note: Afghanistan is a landlocked country located in South Asia and Central Asia. It shares its borders with the following countries:

1. Pakistan to the east and south.
2. Iran to the west.
3. Turkmenistan to the northwest.
4. Uzbekistan to the north.
5. Tajikistan to the north and northeast.
6. China to the far northeast (specifically the region of Xinjiang), though this border is very short compared to the others.

Consider the following countries: 1. Azerbaijan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekstan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan? Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: b) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Indian Constitution: Ministerial Ranks and the 91st Amendment

The Constitution of India does not explicitly classify ministers into four ranks. The classification into Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State, and Deputy Minister is more of a convention that has developed through practice within the parliamentary system of government. It is not specified in the Constitution itself. The Constitution does mention the Council of Ministers and their responsibility to aid and advise the President, but it does not go into the specifics of the different ranks.

The 91st Amendment and its Implications

The 91st Amendment to the Constitution of India, made in 2003, added a provision that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha. This is mentioned in Article 75(1A) of the Constitution. The purpose of this amendment was to prevent an excessively large number of ministers in the government, which could lead to an unnecessary burden on the public exchequer and could also be seen as a means to create political patronage.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. Read More »

Q- Consider the following pairs: Peak – Mountains 1. Namcha Barwa – Garhwal Himalaya 2. Nanda Devi – Kumaon Himalaya 3. Nokrek – Sikkim Himalaya

Q- Consider the following pairs:
Peak – Mountains
1. Namcha Barwa – Garhwal Himalaya
2. Nanda Devi – Kumaon Himalaya
3. Nokrek – Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Correct Answer: b) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Pairs of Peaks and Himalayan Regions

Let’s evaluate each pair:

1. Namcha Barwa – Garhwal Himalaya

Namcha Barwa is not located in the Garhwal Himalayas. It is actually situated in the easternmost part of the Himalayas, in the Tibet Autonomous Region of China. Therefore, this pair is not correctly matched.

2. Nanda Devi – Kumaon Himalaya

Nanda Devi is indeed located in the Kumaon Himalayas, which is a region in the Indian state of Uttarakhand. Nanda Devi is the second-highest mountain in India and the highest entirely within the country (Kangchenjunga being on the border with Nepal). This pair is correctly matched.

3. Nokrek – Sikkim Himalaya

Nokrek is not a peak in the Sikkim Himalayas. It is actually a hill located in the Garo Hills of Meghalaya, India, and is known for the Nokrek National Park, a UNESCO Biosphere Reserve. Therefore, this pair is not correctly matched.

Given the above explanations, the correct answer is “2 only,” meaning that only the second pair (Nanda Devi – Kumaon Himalaya) is correctly matched.

Q- Consider the following pairs: Peak – Mountains 1. Namcha Barwa – Garhwal Himalaya 2. Nanda Devi – Kumaon Himalaya 3. Nokrek – Sikkim Himalaya Read More »

Q. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.

Q. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: b) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Legal Profession in India

The legal profession in India is regulated by the Bar Council of India (BCI), which is a statutory body established by the Parliament under the Advocates Act, 1961. The BCI oversees the standards for legal education and practice within the country.

Understanding the Term “Advocate” in India

The term “advocate” in India is inclusive of individuals who are qualified to practice law in various capacities. This includes government law officers, legal firm lawyers, corporate lawyers, and patent attorneys, as long as they are enrolled with a State Bar Council. The Advocates Act does not restrict these professionals from being recognized as advocates, provided they fulfill the necessary qualifications.

Role of the Bar Council of India in Legal Education

The Bar Council of India holds the authority to set standards for legal education and to recognize law colleges. Through its Legal Education Committee, the BCI is instrumental in formulating rules that govern legal education and in accrediting law schools and universities. Degrees from BCI-recognized institutions are essential for enrollment as an advocate.

Q. With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 3 only
Correct Answer: b) 1, 2 and 4

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Contempt of Courts Act, 1971

The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was a result of the recommendations made by the H.N. Sanyal Committee. The committee was tasked with examining the existing laws on contempt of court, and their report played a crucial role in shaping the legislation that governs contempt proceedings in India today.

Constitutional Provisions for Contempt of Court

The Constitution of India grants the Supreme Court and the High Courts the authority to punish individuals for contempt of themselves. This power is enshrined in Articles 129 and 215, respectively, ensuring that the dignity and authority of the judiciary are upheld.

Definitions of Civil and Criminal Contempt

Contrary to what some might believe, the Constitution of India does not define civil or criminal contempt. These definitions are provided by the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, which distinguishes between willful disobedience of court orders (civil contempt) and acts that may scandalize or lower the authority of the court (criminal contempt).

Legislative Powers Regarding Contempt of Court

In India, the responsibility to legislate on matters of contempt of court is vested in the Parliament. This is outlined in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, which specifically allocates this power to the Union List, thereby giving Parliament the exclusive right to make laws in this domain.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. Read More »

Q. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.

Q. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: c) Both 1 and 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Household Financial Savings and Government Borrowings

In India, household savings are a significant source of funds for the government. Households invest in various financial instruments such as bank deposits, pension funds, insurance schemes, and government securities. A portion of these savings is channeled into government borrowings through the purchase of government bonds and securities. This helps the government to finance its deficit and undertake public expenditures.

Role of Dated Securities in Government’s Internal Debt

The Indian government raises funds through the issuance of dated securities, which are long-term government bonds with a fixed maturity date. These securities are issued at market-related rates, meaning that the interest rates are determined by the demand and supply dynamics in the market. The government conducts auctions for these securities, where various financial institutions and investors bid to purchase them. These dated securities constitute a large portion of the government’s internal debt, which is the debt owed by the government to domestic creditors.

Q. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. Read More »