Prelims 2020 GS Solution

Q. Consider the following statements: 1.The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
2.The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
3.There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : c) 1 and 3 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

President’s Power to Summon Parliament

According to Article 85(1) of the Indian Constitution, the President has the authority to summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he/she deems fit. However, there must not be a gap of more than six months between the last sitting of the Parliament in one session and the date appointed for its first sitting in the next session. This ensures that Parliament meets at least twice a year, though the exact timing and location are at the President’s discretion. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.

Number of Sessions in a Year

The Constitution does not explicitly mandate the number of sessions Parliament must have in a year. The practice of having three sessions (Budget, Monsoon, and Winter) is based on convention rather than a constitutional requirement. Therefore, the statement that the Constitution provides for three sessions but it’s not mandatory to conduct all three is incorrect because the Constitution itself does not specify the number of sessions. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Minimum Number of Meeting Days

The Constitution does not prescribe a minimum number of days for which Parliament must meet in a year. The actual number of days Parliament meets can vary significantly from year to year. Over the years, there has been a decline in the number of days Parliament is in session, with recommendations from various committees suggesting that it should meet for at least 120 days a year. However, these recommendations have not been codified into law, and as such, there is no constitutional or statutory minimum. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1.The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit. Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: 1.According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1.According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
2.According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Statement 1:

This statement is misleading because it suggests that merely being eligible to vote qualifies someone to be appointed as a minister. However, the Constitution requires that a person must also meet the age criteria for being a member of the state legislature (25 years for the Legislative Assembly and 30 years for the Legislative Council) to be eligible for such an appointment. Moreover, they must become a member of the legislature within six months to continue in the ministerial position. Therefore, the statement is incorrect as it omits crucial information regarding eligibility.

Statement 2:

This statement is incorrect because it suggests a permanent disqualification for individuals convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for five years. According to the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the disqualification for contesting in elections is not permanent. A person is disqualified from the date of conviction and continues to be disqualified for a further period of six years after serving their sentence. After this period, the individual is eligible to contest in elections again.

Correct Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q. Consider the following statements: 1.According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State. Read More »

Q. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct

Q. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct

1.They shall be enforceable by courts.
2.They shall not be enforceable by any court.
3.The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer : d) 2 and 3 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India

Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy. These principles are guidelines or aims that the state is supposed to keep in mind while formulating laws and policies. They are meant to ensure that the state works towards creating a more equitable and just society. However, unlike the Fundamental Rights listed in Part III of the Constitution, the Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court. This means that while the state is encouraged to follow these principles, citizens cannot go to court to demand their implementation if the state fails to adhere to them.

The relevant provisions

1. They shall be enforceable by courts. – This statement is incorrect. The Directive Principles, unlike the Fundamental Rights, are not enforceable by courts. This is explicitly stated in Article 37 of the Constitution, which says that the Directive Principles “shall not be enforceable by any court”.

2. They shall not be enforceable by any court. – This statement is correct, as per Article 37 of the Constitution.

3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State. – This statement is correct. The Directive Principles are intended to guide the state in the creation of laws and policies. They embody the concept of a welfare state and aim to address issues like poverty, education, and health to ensure social and economic democracy.

Therefore, the statements 2 and 3 are correct, making option d) 2 and 3 as the right answer.

Q. With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct Read More »

Q. “Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to

Q. “Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to

a) a loan system of the World Bank
b) one of the operations of a Central Bank
c) a credit system granted by WTO to its members
d) a credit system granted by IMF to its members
Correct Answer : d) a credit system granted by IMF to its members

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Gold Tranche (Reserve Tranche)

The “Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to a portion of a country’s quota in the International Monetary Fund (IMF) that can be accessed without the stringent conditions that typically apply to IMF loans. The term originates from the time when the IMF’s operations were closely tied to gold, but in the modern context, it represents a reserve asset that member countries can access.

Quota and Reserve Tranche Position

Each member of the IMF is required to pay a quota, part of which is payable in Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) or major currencies, and part in the member’s own currency. The portion that is payable in SDRs or major currencies forms the country’s reserve tranche position. Accessing funds from the reserve tranche is considered a right of the member countries, as it essentially represents their own resources that they have on deposit with the IMF. Therefore, drawing on the reserve tranche is not considered a loan and does not carry the same conditions and interest charges that other IMF financial mechanisms do.

Liquidity and Financial Safety Net

This system is designed to provide member countries with liquidity in times of balance of payments needs, without the need for a full-fledged program or the stigma that might be associated with borrowing from the IMF. It’s an important part of the global financial safety net, providing a first line of defense for countries with temporary liquidity problems.

Q. “Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to Read More »

Q. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

Q. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
c) a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
Correct Answer : d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Preamble to the Constitution of India

The Preamble to the Constitution of India serves as an introduction to the Constitution and expresses the ideals and aspirations on which the Constitution is based. It outlines the objectives of the Constitution such as Justice, Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity. The Preamble is considered a part of the Constitution, as affirmed by the Supreme Court of India in the Kesavananda Bharati case in 1973. This landmark judgment recognized the Preamble as an integral part of the Constitution.

Role of the Preamble

However, the Preamble, by itself, does not confer any power or enforce any rights or duties like the other provisions of the Constitution. It cannot be a source of any substantive power or limitation. Instead, it provides a guide and a philosophy to interpret the Constitution. Thus, while it is a part of the Constitution, it does not have legal effect independently of other parts. It sets the stage and context for the Constitution but does not directly bear legal consequences on its own.

Q. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is Read More »

Q. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

Q. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
d) An agency or the implementation of public policy
Correct Answer : d) An agency or the implementation of public policy

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Bureaucracy: An agency for implementation of public policy

This is the most appropriate characteristic of bureaucracy, especially in the context of India. The Indian bureaucracy, comprising the civil services, is fundamentally designed to execute the laws and policies formulated by the government. It acts as the administrative arm of the government, ensuring that public policies are implemented efficiently and effectively across the country. Bureaucrats are responsible for translating the vision of the elected government into tangible outcomes for the citizens, making this option the correct answer.

Q. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy? Read More »

Q. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is

Q. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is

a) the final goal of a stateless society
b) class struggle
c) abolition of private property
d) economic determinism
Correct Answer : a) the final goal of a stateless society

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Gandhism

Mahatma Gandhi’s philosophy emphasizes non-violence, truth, and individual and community self-reliance. Gandhi believed in a form of society where social functions are carried out without the need for a centralized state apparatus. His vision included a society organized around small, self-sufficient communities (Sarvodaya), operating on principles of trust, mutual aid, and non-violence. Gandhi’s idea of a stateless society is not explicitly articulated as an end goal in the same way as in Marxism, but his emphasis on decentralization and self-governance implies a minimal role for the state.

Marxism

Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels, on the other hand, theorized that the state is a tool for class oppression, existing to serve the interests of the ruling class. In their view, the state would become obsolete in the final stage of human society, communism, where class distinctions have been abolished, and the means of production are communally owned. The Marxist vision of a stateless society is one where the conditions that necessitate the state’s existence—class antagonisms and the need for coercion to maintain the status quo—have been eliminated.

Q. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. 2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

The Basic Structure of the Constitution of India

The Constitution of India does not explicitly define its ‘basic structure’. The concept of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution was evolved by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1973.

In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that while the Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution. The Court did not provide an exhaustive list of features constituting the basic structure but mentioned a few examples such as federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy, among others.

Therefore, the statement that the Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy is incorrect because it is the interpretation of the Supreme Court, not a definition provided by the Constitution itself.

Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution

The term “judicial review” itself is not explicitly mentioned in the text of the Indian Constitution. However, the power of judicial review is implicitly enshrined within various provisions of the Constitution, making it a fundamental aspect of the Indian legal system.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. 2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based. Read More »

Q. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State?

Q. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State?

a) Directive Principles of State Policy
b) Fundamental Rights
c) Preamble
d) Seventh Schedule
Correct Answer : a) Directive Principles of State Policy

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Directive Principles of State Policy

The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines or principles given to the federal institutes governing the State of India, aiming to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life. They are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.

The Directive Principles of State Policy are not justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by any court, but the principles laid down therein are considered fundamental in the governance of the country. The idea is for the State to apply these principles in making laws to establish a just society in the country. The principles are aimed at ensuring social and economic democracy and pushing the country towards the goal of a welfare state.

Concept of a welfare state

The concept of a welfare state is essentially one in which the state plays a key role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social well-being of its citizens. It is based on the principles of equality of opportunity, equitable distribution of wealth, and public responsibility for those unable to avail themselves of the minimal provisions for a good life. The Directive Principles, by advocating for measures such as the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement, among others, clearly reflect the ideal of a welfare state.

Therefore, the Directive Principles of State Policy (a) is the part of the Constitution of India that declares the ideal of a Welfare State, guiding the State in making laws and policies towards achieving this goal.

Q. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State? Read More »

Q. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

Q. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Correct Answer : b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Parliamentary System of Government

In a parliamentary system of government, the executive branch derives its democratic legitimacy from its ability to command the confidence of the legislative branch, typically a parliament, and is also held accountable to that parliament. In such a system, the head of state is usually a different figure from the head of government, reflecting a distinction between the ceremonial representation of the state at home and abroad (often fulfilled by a president or monarch) and the political leadership of the government (typically filled by a prime minister, premier, or chancellor).

Key Features of a Parliamentary System

The key features that define a parliamentary system include:

  1. Executive-Legislative Interdependence: Unlike in a presidential system, where the executive and legislative branches are separate and coequal, in a parliamentary system, the executive is dependent on the direct or indirect support of the parliament. This support is often manifested through a vote of confidence.
  2. Responsibility to Parliament: The government (executive) is responsible to the parliament. This means that the government must retain the confidence of the majority of the parliament to stay in power. If the parliament passes a vote of no confidence, or in some cases fails to pass a key piece of government legislation (such as the budget), the government must either resign or a general election is called.
  3. Removal by Parliament: As a direct consequence of being responsible to the parliament, the government can be removed by it. This is typically done through a formal vote of no confidence. If the government loses this vote, it must either resign or seek a dissolution of parliament and call for a general election.

The other options provided do not accurately describe a parliamentary system:

  • a) Not all political parties in the parliament are represented in the government. Typically, the government is formed by the majority party or a coalition of parties that hold a majority.
  • c) While the government is elected by the people in a general sense (since the members of parliament are elected and they in turn support the government), the direct removal of the government by the people is not a feature of a parliamentary system. Instead, the government’s continuation in power is subject to parliamentary confidence.
  • d) In a parliamentary system, the government can indeed be removed by the parliament before the completion of a fixed term, contrary to this statement. This is a fundamental aspect of parliamentary accountability and flexibility.

Therefore, option b) accurately captures the essence of a parliamentary system’s mechanism for government accountability and potential removal.

Q. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which Read More »