Prelims 2021 GS Solution

Q. Consider the following statements: 1.21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.

Q. Consider the following statements:
1. 21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: b) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation :-

International Mother Language Day and Language Movement

The correct answer is “2 only.” Here’s the explanation for each statement:

Statement 1: International Mother Language Day by UNESCO

21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNESCO, not UNICEF. UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) proclaimed 21st February as International Mother Language Day in November 1999. The day was chosen to commemorate the 1952 Language Movement in Dhaka, Bangladesh, where students and activists protested for the recognition of their mother language, Bangla (Bengali), as one of the state languages of the then Pakistan. This statement is incorrect. Bengali language movement – Wikipedia

Statement 2: The Language Demand in Pakistan’s Constituent Assembly

The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was indeed raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan. When Pakistan was formed in 1947, it had two geographically and culturally separate regions: West Pakistan and East Pakistan (now Bangladesh). The majority of the population in East Pakistan spoke Bangla, and they demanded that it be recognized as one of the national languages alongside Urdu. This demand led to the Language Movement, which ultimately resulted in Bangla being recognized as a state language of Pakistan. This statement is correct.

Therefore, only the second statement is correct.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1.21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF. Read More »

Q. With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?

Q. With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct?

a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.
b) The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.
c) The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
d) Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over.

Correct Answer: a) The Quit India Resolution was adopted by the AICC.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Quit India Movement

On 8th August 1942, a pivotal event occurred in the Indian independence movement. The All India Congress Committee (AICC) adopted the Quit India Resolution, signaling the commencement of the Quit India Movement, also known as the ‘Bharat Chhodo Andolan’. This movement was characterized by civil disobedience with the ultimate goal of ending British rule in India.

The resolution was passed during the Bombay session of the AICC at Gowalia Tank Maidan, which is also known as August Kranti Maidan. The movement was spearheaded by Mahatma Gandhi, who delivered the iconic “Do or Die” call to action in his speech, encouraging Indians to engage in non-violent resistance against the British.

Other Historical Events in Context

It’s important to distinguish the Quit India Movement from other historical events in Indian history. While the Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians, this was not associated with the events of 8th August 1942.

Similarly, the resignation of Congress ministries in seven provinces occurred in 1939, as a reaction to the Viceroy’s decision to involve India in World War II without consulting Indian leaders.

Furthermore, the proposal of an Indian Union with full Dominion Status after the Second World War was made by Sir Stafford Cripps during the Cripps Mission in March-April 1942. However, this proposal was ultimately rejected by Indian leaders as it did not satisfy the demand for immediate independence nor did it provide a definite timeline for the cessation of British rule.

Q. With reference to 8th August, 1942 in Indian history, which one of the following statements is correct? Read More »

Q. With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1.The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State.

Q. With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State.
2.The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijayanagara Empire.
3.Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
Correct Answer: a) 1 and 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Statement 1 holds true. The Nizamat of Carnatic, also known as Arcot, was once subordinate to the Hyderabad Deccan and fell under the jurisdiction of the Nizam of Hyderabad until its dissolution. Subsequently, it became independent from Hyderabad.

Statement 2 is accurate. The Wodeyar dynasty, predominantly Hindu, established the Mysore kingdom, which initially functioned as a tributary state of the Vijayanagara Empire.

Statement 3 is not correct. The Kingdom of Rohilkhand emerged during the waning years of the Mughal Empire in 1721 and persisted until 1774.

Q. With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1.The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State. Read More »

Q. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements:

Q. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements:

1.Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of the egg.
2.A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: c) Both 1 and 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Mitochondrial Replacement Therapy and Prevention of Mitochondrial Diseases

Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT), also known as mitochondrial donation. This is a special form of in vitro fertilization in which the mitochondria from a donor egg are used to replace those of the mother. This technique involves transferring the nuclear DNA from the mother’s egg or embryo into a donor egg or embryo that has healthy mitochondria and whose own nuclear DNA has been removed. This can be done before fertilization (as in maternal spindle transfer or germinal vesicle transfer) or after fertilization (as in pronuclear transfer). The resulting embryo has the nuclear DNA of the intended parents but the mitochondrial DNA of the donor, thus preventing the transmission of mitochondrial diseases from the mother to the child.

Inheritance of Mitochondrial Diseases

A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from the mother and not from the father. Mitochondria are unique organelles within cells that have their own DNA, known as mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA). Unlike nuclear DNA, which is inherited from both parents, mtDNA is typically inherited exclusively from the mother. This is because the mitochondria in the sperm are usually destroyed or degraded after fertilization, and thus do not contribute to the embryo’s mitochondrial pool. Consequently, if a mother has a mitochondrial disease (caused by mutations in her mtDNA), there is a risk that she can pass it on to her children, while fathers do not pass on mtDNA to their offspring, and thus do not transmit mitochondrial diseases.

Therefore, the correct answer is “Both 1 and 2“.

Q. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

Q. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

a) A Democratic Republic
b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

Correct Answer: b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

India’s Constitution Adoption and Republic Status

On January 26, 1950, India adopted its new Constitution and became a republic. The exact constitutional status of India on this date was “Sovereign Democratic Republic.”

Sovereign: This indicates that India is a fully independent country, not subject to any external authority.
Democratic: This signifies that the country’s government is elected by its people and that it operates on the principles of democracy.
Republic: This means that the head of state is elected, not a hereditary monarch.

42nd Amendment and Changes to the Preamble

At this point in time, the words “Socialist” and “Secular” were not part of the preamble to the Constitution. These terms were added later by the 42nd Amendment in 1976, during the Emergency period under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. After this amendment, the preamble reads “Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic.”

Therefore, on January 26, 1950, the correct constitutional status of India was “A Sovereign Democratic Republic.”

Q. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950? Read More »

Q. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of

Q. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of

a) brown forest soil
b) fissure volcanic rock
c) granite and schist
d) shale and limestone

Correct Answer: b) fissure volcanic rock

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Black Cotton Soil and Its Formation

Black cotton soil, also known as Regur soil, is a type of vertisol found in India. This soil is particularly prevalent in the Deccan Plateau, which covers parts of Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu. The black color of the soil is due to the presence of various minerals, including iron, magnesium, and aluminum silicates, which are derived from the weathering of volcanic rocks.

The correct answer to the formation of black cotton soil is “fissure volcanic rock.” This refers to the basaltic rock that originates from volcanic activity, particularly through fissure eruptions, where lava flows out of long cracks in the earth’s crust. Over time, these basaltic rocks weather under the influence of water, temperature changes, and biological activity, breaking down into smaller particles.

Weathering Process and Soil Characteristics

Weathering of these fissure volcanic rocks leads to the formation of fine-grained, clay-rich soil that has the capacity to retain moisture. The high clay content causes the soil to swell when wet and shrink upon drying, which can lead to deep cracks during dry seasons. This characteristic makes the soil suitable for growing cotton, hence the name “black cotton soil.” The soil is also rich in nutrients, making it fertile and good for agriculture, although its high clay content can pose challenges for building foundations due to its expansive nature.

Parent Materials of Black Cotton Soil

The other options listed—brown forest soil, granite and schist, and shale and limestone—are not the primary parent materials for the formation of black cotton soil in India. Brown forest soil is typically associated with forested areas and is not the result of volcanic rock weathering. Granite and schist are metamorphic and igneous rocks, respectively, and while they can contribute to soil formation through weathering, they are not the primary sources of black cotton soil. Shale and limestone are sedimentary rocks that also do not typically weather into black cotton soil.

Q. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of Read More »

Q. In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle?

Q. In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle?

a) Carbon cycle
b) Nitrogen cycle
c) Phosphorus cycle
d) Sulphur cycle

Correct Answer: c) Phosphorus cycle

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Phosphorus Cycle

The Phosphorus cycle is one of the slowest biogeochemical cycles and differs from the other major biogeochemical cycles—carbon, nitrogen, and sulfur—because it does not have a significant atmospheric component. Phosphorus is not found in a gaseous state under normal environmental conditions.

Phosphorus in Rocks

The primary source of phosphorus in the phosphorus cycle is rock. Phosphate rock contains the mineral apatite, which is composed mainly of phosphate minerals containing phosphorus in the form of phosphate ions (PO4^3-). Over time, weathering processes break down these rocks and release phosphate into the soil and water.

Phosphorus in the Soil and Ecosystem

Once in the soil, phosphorus is taken up by plants through their roots. It is an essential nutrient for plant growth, playing a key role in energy transfer within cells (as part of ATP), in genetic material (DNA and RNA), and in cell membranes (as phospholipids). Animals obtain their phosphorus by consuming plants or other animals.

Phosphorus is generally found in nature as part of phosphate ions, and it moves through the ecosystem via the food web. When plants and animals die, decomposers like bacteria and fungi break down the organic matter, releasing phosphate back into the soil or aquatic environments.

The Unique Nature of the Phosphorus Cycle

The phosphorus cycle lacks a significant atmospheric component because phosphorus does not typically enter the atmosphere in a gaseous form. Instead, it remains mostly on land and in rock and soil minerals, and its cycle is primarily driven by geological and biological processes such as weathering, erosion, and the growth and decay of organisms.

In summary, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of phosphorus into the cycle, making the phosphorus cycle the correct answer to the question.

Q. In case of which one of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle? Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: 1.The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.

Q. Consider the following statements:
1.The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
2.India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3.‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on the seafloor in international waters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 oanly
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: b) 2 and 3 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Seabed Exploration and Mining Licences

The Global Ocean Commission does not grant licences for seabed exploration and mining. Instead, the International Seabed Authority (ISA), established under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), is the responsible authority. The ISA manages the mineral resources of the international seabed area and grants licences for exploration and potential future mining.

India’s Role in Seabed Mineral Exploration

India has been granted licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters. As an active participant in deep-sea exploration, India has secured rights to explore for various minerals, including polymetallic nodules rich in metals such as nickel, copper, cobalt, and manganese, as well as hydrothermal sulphides.

Presence of Rare Earth Minerals on the Seafloor

The seafloor in international waters is home to rare earth minerals, a crucial group of 17 elements used in high-tech industries. These minerals are found in forms such as polymetallic nodules, polymetallic sulphides, and ferromanganese crusts, and are essential for modern technologies, attracting exploration interest from various countries and companies.

In conclusion, the correct statements regarding seabed exploration and mining are that India has received licences for mineral exploration and that rare earth minerals are present on the seafloor in international waters, making statements 2 and 3 correct.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1.The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters. Read More »

Q. With reference to ‘Urban Cooperative Banks’ in India, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to ‘Urban Cooperative Banks’ in India, consider the following statements:

1.They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments.
2.They can issue equity shares and preference shares.
3.They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: b) 2 and 3 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Urban Cooperative Banks

Urban Cooperative Banks (UCBs) are a vital part of the Indian banking system. While they play a significant role in urban areas, there are common misconceptions about their regulation and capabilities. Here, we will clarify the facts regarding their supervision, ability to raise capital, and regulatory framework.

Regulation and Supervision

Contrary to the belief that UCBs are supervised by local boards set up by the State Governments, they are primarily regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). They are also registered under the State Cooperative Societies Acts. The RBI’s role is crucial, especially for banking functions, while the state’s involvement is through the Registrar of Cooperative Societies, not local boards.
Microsoft Word – 89735.doc (rbi.org.in)

Capital Raising Capabilities

UCBs are indeed permitted to issue both equity shares and preference shares. This allows them to raise capital within the regulatory guidelines provided by the RBI and state legislation, enhancing their financial stability and growth prospects.

Historical Regulatory Changes

The inclusion of UCBs under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, was a significant milestone. The Banking Laws (Amendment) Act 1965, effective from 1966, brought cooperative banks under the purview of this Act, ensuring they maintain the necessary banking standards and contribute to the overall financial stability of the banking sector.

In summary, statements 2 and 3 accurately describe the capabilities and regulatory changes of Urban Cooperative Banks, while statement 1 does not provide a correct depiction of their supervisory structure.

Q. With reference to ‘Urban Cooperative Banks’ in India, consider the following statements: Read More »