Prelims 2021 GS Solution

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship:

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship:

1.The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
2.New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

ICC World Test Championship Finalists Selection

The ICC World Test Championship is a league competition for Test cricket run by the International Cricket Council (ICC), which started on 1 August 2019. The championship features nine of the twelve Test-playing nations, each of which plays a Test series against six of the other eight teams. The first edition of the championship concluded with the final in June 2021.

Now, let’s address the statements:

1. Finalists Decided by Match Wins?

This statement is incorrect. The finalists for the ICC World Test Championship were not decided solely by the number of matches they won. Instead, the ranking was based on the percentage of points earned from the matches they played. This points percentage system was introduced after the COVID-19 pandemic disrupted the cricket calendar, leading to the cancellation of several series. Teams were awarded points for wins, draws, and ties, but the final standings were determined by the percentage of points they earned out of the total points available from the matches they actually played.

2. New Zealand’s Ranking Over England

This statement is also incorrect. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England not just because it won more matches, but because it had a higher percentage of points. The ranking was not based on the number of matches won alone but on the points percentage as explained above. New Zealand qualified for the final due to their higher points percentage compared to other teams, including England.

Therefore, the correct answer is “Neither 1 nor 2” because both statements are incorrect based on the methodology used by the ICC to determine the finalists for the World Test Championship.

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the ICC World Test Championship: Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics:

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics:

1. The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
2.Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: b) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Tokyo 2020 Olympics Postponement and Motto

The 32nd Summer Olympics, also known as the Tokyo 2020 Olympics, were held in 2021 due to the postponement caused by the COVID-19 pandemic. The official motto for the Tokyo 2020 Olympics was “United by Emotion,” not “A New World.” Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

New Sports at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics

Regarding statement 2, Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, and Karate were indeed included in the Tokyo 2020 Olympics as new sports. Baseball, along with its counterpart Softball, also made a return to the Olympics for the first time since 2008. This means that statement 2 is correct.

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000:

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000:

1.American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
2.The award was received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
3.Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.

Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: c) 1 and 3 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Laureus World Sports Award

The Laureus World Sports Awards were established in 2000 to celebrate the achievements of athletes from around the world. These prestigious awards recognize the outstanding sports performances of the year and have a rich history of winners from various sports disciplines.

Notable Laureus Award Winners

American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award, setting a high standard for future recipients. The award has not been received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players, as athletes from a multitude of sports have been honored. Tennis legend Roger Federer stands out for receiving this award the maximum number of times, showcasing his exceptional talent and contribution to the sport.

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World.

Q. Consider the following statements:

Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World.
Statement 2: Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1.
b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.
c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct.
d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.
Correct Answer: d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Hyderabad’s Recognition as a 2020 Tree City of the World

Statement 1 is incorrect because Hyderabad was indeed recognized as a 2020 Tree City of the World. The recognition is given by the Arbor Day Foundation and the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations, not the United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF). The Tree Cities of the World program is designed to recognize cities around the globe that are committed to ensuring that their urban forests and trees are properly maintained, sustainably managed, and duly celebrated.

Why Hyderabad Received the Recognition

Statement 2 is correct as well because Hyderabad was selected for the recognition due to its commitment to growing and maintaining urban forests. The city has made efforts to increase its green cover as part of urban development planning and has taken initiatives to protect and develop urban forests.

Q. Consider the following statements: Statement 1: The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World. Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:

1.Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
2.Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
3.The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards

The Indian Constitution and its provisions regarding titles and awards are often misunderstood. A common misconception is that the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under Article 18(1). However, this is not the case, as Article 18(1) specifically prohibits the state from conferring titles other than those that are military or academic in nature. The Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are, in fact, civilian awards given by the President of India to individuals for their exceptional service to the nation and do not fall under the purview of this article.

History of the Padma Awards

The Padma Awards, established in 1954, have a history of being suspended, contrary to the belief that they were suspended only once. In reality, these prestigious awards have been withheld twice in Indian history. The first suspension occurred from July 1977 to January 1980, and the second from 1992 to 1995, reflecting periods of reconsideration and review of the awarding process.

Bharat Ratna Award Limitations

Another common misconception is regarding the number of Bharat Ratna Awards that can be conferred in a single year. It is often thought that there is a cap of five awards per year. However, there is no official limit to the number of Bharat Ratna recipients in a given year. While the practice has been to award a very small number annually, typically not exceeding three, this is not a mandated restriction.

Source:-Bharat Ratna – Wikipedia

Q. Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards: Read More »

Q. With reference to India, the terms ‘HaIbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to

Q. With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to

a) dance forms of Northwest India
b) musical instruments
c) pre-historic cave paintings
d) tribal languages

Correct Answer: d) tribal languages

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Tribal Languages – Halbi, Ho and Kui

The terms ‘Halbi, Ho, and Kui‘ pertain to tribal languages spoken by indigenous communities in India. These languages are not associated with dance forms, musical instruments, or pre-historic cave paintings. Here is a brief explanation of each language:

Halbi Language

Halbi is an Indo-Aryan language spoken predominantly in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh, along with some regions of Maharashtra, Odisha, and Andhra Pradesh. It is one of the 42 scheduled tribal languages of India and serves as a lingua franca among various tribes in the Bastar area.

Ho Language

Ho is an Austroasiatic language spoken primarily by the Ho people of the Indian states of Jharkhand and Odisha, with smaller populations in West Bengal, Chhattisgarh, and Assam. It belongs to the Munda family of languages and is written in the Warang Citi script, although Devanagari and Roman scripts are also used.

Kui Language

Kui is a Dravidian language spoken by the Kondh people (also known as Kandha, Khond, or Khondh) in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. It is closely related to the Kuvi language and has a significant number of speakers, making it one of the more widely spoken tribal languages in Odisha.

Q. With reference to India, the terms ‘HaIbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to Read More »

Q. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements:

1.It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
2.It is the only circular temple built in India.
3.It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
4.Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 4
d) 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer: c) 1 and 4

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Not Available

Q. With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. Which one of the following statements is correct? a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river.

Q. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river.
b) Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal river.
c) Pandu-lena Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada river.
d) Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari river.

Correct Answer: Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Ajanta Caves

The Ajanta Caves are a series of ancient Buddhist rock-cut caves located in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra, India. These caves, dating from the 2nd century BCE to about 480 CE, are situated in a panoramic gorge, in the form of a gigantic horseshoe, along the Waghora river. They are renowned for their magnificent frescoes and sculptures, which are considered masterpieces of Buddhist religious art.

Q. Which one of the following statements is correct? a) Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river. Read More »

Q. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP, has been developed for

Q. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP, has been developed for

a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
b) enabling commercial fanning entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
c) enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
d) assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time

Correct Answer: a) assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Common Carbon Metric (CCM)

The Common Carbon Metric (CCM) is an initiative supported by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), particularly through its Sustainable Buildings and Climate Initiative (SBCI). The CCM is a standardized method for measuring the carbon emissions of buildings. Its purpose is to establish a consistent framework for quantifying the energy consumption and CO2 emissions associated with building operations on a global scale.

Objectives of the Common Carbon Metric

The CCM aims to provide a way to benchmark, compare, and track the energy and carbon performance of buildings over time. It supports the efforts of governments, industry, and building owners in understanding and reducing the carbon footprint of the built environment.

Components of the Common Carbon Metric

The Common Carbon Metric typically includes:

  • Baseline or operational carbon emissions: This refers to the emissions related to the energy used for heating, cooling, lighting, and other building operations.
  • Embodied carbon emissions: Some versions of the CCM also consider the emissions associated with the materials and construction processes throughout the building’s lifecycle.

Impact of the Common Carbon Metric

The CCM is part of a broader effort to promote energy efficiency and reduce greenhouse gas emissions in the building sector, which is a significant contributor to global emissions. By using a standardized approach, stakeholders can more effectively implement strategies to improve building performance, contribute to national and international climate goals, and work towards sustainable development.

Q. The ‘Common Carbon Metric’, supported by UNEP, has been developed for Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if

Q. Consider the following statements:

Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if

1.price of its substitute increases
2.price of its complement increases
3.the good is an inferior good and income of the consumers increases
4.its price falls
Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 4 only
b) 2, 3 and 4
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: a) 1 and 4 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2021 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Factors Influencing Market Demand for a Good

When considering the market demand for a good, various factors can influence whether demand increases or decreases. Here’s a breakdown of how each factor affects demand:

1. Price of Its Substitute Increases

If the price of a substitute good increases, consumers may shift their demand to the original good, as it becomes relatively more affordable. This is a correct statement, exemplified by consumers opting for tea when the price of coffee rises.

2. Price of Its Complement Increases

An increase in the price of a complementary good typically leads to a decrease in demand for the original good. This is because the combined cost of using both goods is higher. Thus, this statement is incorrect in suggesting an increase in market demand for the original good.

3. The Good is an Inferior Good and Income of Consumers Increases

For an inferior good, demand decreases as consumer income rises, as consumers tend to choose higher-quality alternatives. Consequently, an increase in consumer income would not increase demand for an inferior good, making this statement incorrect.

4. Its Price Falls

According to the law of demand, a decrease in the price of a good, ceteris paribus, leads to an increase in the quantity demanded. This is because the good becomes more accessible to consumers, making this statement correct.

In summary, the factors that correctly indicate an increase in market demand for a good are the rise in the price of its substitute and a fall in its own price. Therefore, statements 1 and 4 are accurate.

Q. Consider the following statements: Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if Read More »