Prelims 2022 GS Solution

Q. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 only
Correct Answer: b) 2 only (Official Answer)

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 in India

In India, wildlife protection is governed by the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. This Act provides for the protection of wild animals, birds, and plants with the aim of ensuring the ecological and environmental security of the country. Let’s analyze the statements given:

Statement Analysis

  1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
    This statement is not entirely accurate. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, wild animals are considered to be owned by the state government where they are found. However, this does not mean that the government has the same rights as a private owner would have over their property. The Act imposes a duty on the government to protect wildlife and its habitat, and it restricts the trade, hunting, and exploitation of wild animals.

2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
This statement is correct. The Wildlife (Protection) Act provides for the establishment of protected areas such as sanctuaries and national parks, but it also offers protection to wild animals outside these areas. Once an animal is listed in the Schedules of the Act, it receives legal protection regardless of where it is found, and offenses against protected animals are punishable under the Act.

3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
This statement is not entirely correct. While the Act does allow for the capture or killing of a protected wild animal in certain circumstances, such as when it poses a danger to human life, this is subject to strict conditions and often requires permission from the appropriate authorities. The Act also provides for the declaration of certain animals as vermin in specific areas and for specific periods, which may then be hunted or culled. However, this is not a blanket provision and is regulated to ensure the balance between human safety and wildlife conservation.

Therefore, the correct answer is “2 only,” as the second statement is the only one that is entirely accurate without qualifications.

Q. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. Consider the following pairs: Region often mentioned in the news – Country 1. Anatolia – Turkey 2. Amhara – Ethiopia 3. Cabo Delgado – Spain 4. Catalonia – Italy

Q. Consider the following pairs:

Region often mentioned in the news – Country
1. Anatolia – Turkey
2. Amhara – Ethiopia
3. Cabo Delgado – Spain
4. Catalonia – Italy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs
Correct Answer: b) Only two pairs

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correctly Matched Geographical Pairs

Pair 1: Anatolia and Turkey

The AnatoliaTurkey pair is correctly matched, with Anatolia being a significant region in western Asia that constitutes the larger part of what is known today as Turkey.

Pair 2: Amhara and Ethiopia

AmharaEthiopia: This pair is also correctly matched. Amhara is one of the regions of Ethiopia and is located in the north-central part of the country.

Incorrectly Matched Geographical Pairs

Pair 3: Cabo Delgado and Spain

Cabo Delgado – Spain: This pair is incorrectly matched. Cabo Delgado is not in Spain; it is actually a province located in the northern part of Mozambique.

Pair 4: Catalonia and Italy

Catalonia – Italy: This pair is incorrectly matched. Catalonia is not in Italy; it is an autonomous community located in northeastern Spain.

Therefore, only two pairs (AnatoliaTurkey and AmharaEthiopia) are correctly matched.

Q. Consider the following pairs: Region often mentioned in the news – Country 1. Anatolia – Turkey 2. Amhara – Ethiopia 3. Cabo Delgado – Spain 4. Catalonia – Italy Read More »

Q. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?

Q. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?

a) Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
c) Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.
d) Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.

Correct Answer: b) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Sangam-Era Poets and Social Stratification

During the Sangam era, poets were cognizant of the social stratification known as varna. They referenced Arashar (monarchs), Vaishiyar (merchants), and Velalar (agriculturists). Brahmanas are also mentioned, with some having strong ties to royal courts and enjoying the patronage of the elite. However, the rigid four-tier varna system did not significantly influence ancient Tamil society. Contrary to the prevalent varna system, the ancient Tamil society was not significantly impacted by the rigid four-tier structure. Similarly, the jati system, which is a sub-categorization within the varna, did not play a role in this society. Therefore, the observation that the jati system was non-influential stands true.

Q. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct? Read More »

Q. Consider the following pairs: Country – Important reason for being in the news recently 1. Chad – Setting up of permanent military base by China

Q. Consider the following pairs:
Country – Important reason for being in the news recently

1. Chad – Setting up of permanent military base by China
2. Guinea – Suspension of Constitution and Government by military
3. Lebanon – Severe and prolonged economic depression
4. Tunisia – Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs
Correct Answer: c) Only three pairs

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Chad – Chinese Military Base

Contrary to some reports, there is no evidence that China has set up a permanent military base in Chad. While China has indeed expanded its military presence globally, including establishing a base in Djibouti, no such development has been confirmed in Chad.

Guinea – Military Suspension of Constitution

It is true that the military in Guinea suspended the constitution and overthrew the government in September 2021. This coup led to the detention of President Alpha Condé and the establishment of military rule.

Lebanon – Economic Crisis

Lebanon is indeed experiencing a prolonged economic depression. The nation’s economy is in crisis, with a significant devaluation of the Lebanese pound, leading to hyperinflation and widespread financial hardship.

Tunisia – Presidential Actions

In Tunisia, the president did indeed suspend the parliament and dismiss the prime minister in July 2021. This controversial move has been debated as either a step toward resolving the country’s issues or as an undemocratic power grab.

In conclusion, of the four cases analyzed, three are accurate representations of the events (Guinea, Lebanon, and Tunisia), while the statement regarding Chad is not substantiated. Thus, only three pairs are correctly matched.

Q. Consider the following pairs: Country – Important reason for being in the news recently 1. Chad – Setting up of permanent military base by China Read More »

Q. Consider the following pairs: King – Dynasty 1. Nanuka Chandela 2. Jayashakti Parmara 3. Nagabhata II Gurjara-Pratihara 4. Bhoja Rashtrakuta

Q. Consider the following pairs:
King – Dynasty
1. Nanuka – Chandela
2. Jayashakti – Parmara
3. Nagabhata II – Gurjara-Pratihara
4. Bhoja – Rashtrakuta

How many pairs given above are correctly matched:
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs
Correct Answer: b) Only two pairs

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Historical Records and Dynastic Associations

Based on historical records, Nanuka (also known as Nannuka or Nannuk) is indeed associated with the Chandela dynasty. He is considered the founder of the Chandela dynasty in central India.

Jayashakti is not correctly matched with the Parmara dynasty. He was a ruler from the Chandela dynasty.

Gurjara-Pratihara and Paramara Dynasties

Nagabhata II is correctly matched with the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty. He was a prominent ruler of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty, known for defending his kingdom against the Arab invasions from the west.

Bhoja is not correctly matched with the Rashtrakuta dynasty. Bhoja was a king of the Paramara dynasty that ruled in the region of Malwa in central India. He is known for his patronage of the arts, literature, and architecture.

Therefore, out of the four pairs, only two pairs are correctly matched:
1. Nanuka – Chandela
3. Nagabhata II – Gurjara-Pratihara

The correct answer is: Only two pairs

Q. Consider the following pairs: King – Dynasty 1. Nanuka Chandela 2. Jayashakti Parmara 3. Nagabhata II Gurjara-Pratihara 4. Bhoja Rashtrakuta Read More »

Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

a) It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
c) A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
d) Though International Court, of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.

Correct Answer: b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands Dispute

Senkaku Islands, known as the Diaoyu Islands in China, are a group of uninhabited islands located in the East China Sea. They are the center of a long-standing territorial dispute between China and Japan. “China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.”

Background and Context of the Dispute

The Senkaku Islands are strategically located and are thought to be rich in natural resources, including potential oil and gas reserves. The islands are currently administered by Japan, but both China and Taiwan claim sovereignty over them. The dispute over the islands has historical roots and has been a source of tension between Japan and China for decades.

Significance of the Dispute

The significance of the dispute lies not only in the potential resources but also in the strategic control of the surrounding sea lanes, which are some of the busiest in the world. The islands are also important for national pride and domestic politics in both countries.

Misconceptions and Clarifications

The islands are not artificial; they are naturally formed. There is no permanent American military base on the islands, and the United States has not taken an official position on the sovereignty of the islands. While the U.S. is a key ally of Japan and is bound by treaty to defend Japanese territory, it has remained neutral on the sovereignty issue while recognizing Japan’s administrative control.

Current State of Affairs

The tensions over the islands have led to diplomatic standoffs, protests, and occasional confrontations at sea. Both countries have increased their maritime patrols and nationalist sentiments often flare up when incidents occur near the islands. The dispute remains a sensitive and complex issue in Sino-Japanese relations.

Q. Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news? Read More »

Q. Consider the following pairs: Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts – Location in the State of 1. Dhauli – Odisha 2. Erragudi – Andhra Pradesh 3. Jaugada – Madhya Pradesh 4. Kalsi – Karnataka

Q. Consider the following pairs:
Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts – Location in the State of
1. Dhauli – Odisha
2. Erragudi – Andhra Pradesh
3. Jaugada – Madhya Pradesh
4. Kalsi – Karnataka

How many pairs given above are correctly matched:
a) Only one pair
b) Only two pairs
c) Only three pairs
d) All four pairs
Correct Answer: b) Only two pairs

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Ashoka’s Major Rock Edicts and Their Locations

The correct answer to the matching of the sites of Ashoka’s major rock edicts and their locations is b) Only two pairs.

Correctly Matched Pairs

Dhauli in Odisha is known for its rock edicts and is correctly matched as such. Similarly, the Erragudi rock edicts are indeed located in Andhra Pradesh, making this pair another correct match.

Incorrectly Matched Pairs

However, the pair Jaugada – Madhya Pradesh is incorrect, as Jaugada is actually situated in Odisha. The pair Kalsi – Karnataka is also incorrect because Kalsi is found in Uttarakhand, not Karnataka.

Thus, the answer is b) Only two pairs.

Q. Consider the following pairs: Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts – Location in the State of 1. Dhauli – Odisha 2. Erragudi – Andhra Pradesh 3. Jaugada – Madhya Pradesh 4. Kalsi – Karnataka Read More »

Q. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements:

1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)

The United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), which was adopted in 1982 and came into force in 1994, is the international agreement that defines the rights and responsibilities of nations with respect to their use of the world’s oceans, establishing guidelines for businesses, the environment, and the management of marine natural resources.

Key Provisions of UNCLOS

1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baselines determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Therefore, all three statements given above are correct, and the correct answer is: 1, 2, and 3.

Q. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?

Q. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?

a) Ant
b) Cockroach
c) Crab
d) Spider

Correct Answer: a) Ant

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Attine Ants and Their Fungiculture Practices

Certain species of ants, particularly those in the tribe Attini, are well known for their remarkable ability to cultivate fungi. These ants engage in a mutualistic relationship with the fungi, which is often referred to as “fungiculture.”

Mutualistic Relationship Between Ants and Fungi

The attine ants, which include the leafcutter ants (genus Atta) and other related genera, actively collect plant material, such as leaves, flowers, and twigs, and bring these back to their nests. They then use this plant material to create a substrate on which they cultivate fungal gardens. The fungi break down the plant material, making the nutrients more accessible to the ants. In return, the ants provide the fungi with a stable environment, protection from pests and competitors, and a constant supply of growth substrate.

Advanced Agriculture and Symbiosis in Nature

This mutualistic relationship is quite sophisticated. The ants have evolved special behaviors and structures to manage their fungal gardens, including the use of antibiotics to control bacterial growth and the removal of unwanted fungi species. The fungi also evolve in concert with the ants, often becoming so specialized that they cannot survive outside of the ant-fungus mutualism.

The cultivation of fungi by these ants is a clear example of an advanced form of animal agriculture and is one of the most complex examples of symbiosis in nature. It is a fascinating demonstration of how two different species can evolve together to form a highly interdependent and efficient system.

Q. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? Read More »

Q. If a Particular area is brought unde the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statement best reflects the consequence of it?

Q. If a Particular area is brought unde the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statement best reflects the consequence of it?

a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
b) This would create a local self- governing body in that area.
c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
d) The State having such areas would be declare a Special Category State.
Correct Answer: a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India is crucial for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in India. It provides a framework for protecting the rights and culture of indigenous tribal populations, excluding the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram, which are covered by the Sixth Schedule.

Prevention of Land Transfer

A key aspect of the Fifth Schedule is the prevention of land transfers from tribal people to non-tribal people. The Governor has the authority to regulate land transactions to protect tribal interests and prevent exploitation.

Governance by Tribes Advisory Council

The establishment of a Tribes Advisory Council is mandated for advising on tribal welfare and advancement. This council is composed primarily of representatives from the Scheduled Tribes.

Governor’s Special Powers

The Governor is endowed with special powers to make regulations for maintaining peace and good governance within Scheduled Areas. These may include restrictions on the sale of products or regulation of money-lending.

Discretion of the Governor to Apply Laws

The Governor can decide whether any law applies to Scheduled Areas, allowing for modifications or exceptions to cater to the unique needs of these regions.

Report to the President

An annual report, or as needed, is submitted to the President of India concerning the administration of Scheduled Areas, keeping the central government informed.

Q. If a Particular area is brought unde the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statement best reflects the consequence of it? Read More »