Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India. 2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport. 3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 1 and 3 d) 3 only Correct Answer: b) 2 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
India’s Solar Energy Developments
b) 2 only
1. Gujarat was home to one of the largest solar parks in India, the Charanka Solar Park. However, the Bhadla Solar Park in Rajasthan is considered the largest solar power plant in India by capacity. So, statement 1 is incorrect. 2. Kerala’s Cochin International Airport is the first fully solar-powered airport in the world. This statement is correct. 3. The largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India is not in Goa but in Ramagundam, Telangana. The project is developed by NTPC (National Thermal Power Corporation Limited). Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.
Thus, only statement 2 is correct, making option b) the correct answer.
Q. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:
1. The Tea Board is a statutory body. 2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. 3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. 4. The Board has overseas office at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 3 b) 2 and 4 c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 4 Correct Answer: d) 1 and 4
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
Tea Board of India
The Tea Board of India is a statutory body established under the Tea Act of 1953. It functions under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government of India, not the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Its primary purpose is to promote the cultivation, processing, and domestic trade as well as the export of tea from India.
Head Office Location
The Tea Board’s head office is located in Kolkata, West Bengal, not in Bengaluru. This is an important distinction as Kolkata has historically been a hub for the tea trade in India.
Overseas Offices
Regarding its overseas offices, the Tea Board of India has indeed had offices in various international locations to promote Indian tea globally. However, the exact locations of these offices can change over time based on strategic trade interests and decisions made by the Tea Board and the Government of India. The Tea Board had offices in places like Dubai and Moscow.
Based on the information provided:
The Tea Board is a statutory body. (Correct)
It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. (Incorrect, it is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry)
The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. (Incorrect, it is in Kolkata)
The Board has overseas office at Dubai and Moscow. (Correct)
Q. Consider the following countries 1. Armenia 2. Azerbaijan 3. Croatia 4. Romania 5. Uzbekistan
Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?
a) 1, 2 and 4 b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 5 d) 3, 4 and 5
Correct Answer: c) 2 and 5
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
Organization of Turkic States Membership
The Organization of Turkic States (formerly known as the Turkic Council) is an international organization comprising some of the Turkic countries. The organization aims to promote cooperation between these countries in various fields such as economy, science, education, transportation, tourism, and more.
Current Members of the Organization
As of 14 Jan 2024, the members of the Organization of Turkic States are:
Azerbaijan
Kazakhstan
Kyrgyzstan
Turkey
Uzbekistan
Additionally, Hungary has observer status in the organization.
Clarification on Non-Member Countries
Armenia is not a member of the Organization of Turkic States. Armenia is not a Turkic country, and its relationships with some of the Turkic states, especially Azerbaijan, are strained due to historical conflicts like the Nagorno-Karabakh dispute.
Croatia is not a Turkic country, and it is not a member of the Organization of Turkic States. Croatia is a Slavic country located in Southeast Europe and is a member of the European Union.
Romania is not a Turkic country, and it is not a member of the Organization of Turkic States. Romania is a Romance-speaking country located in Southeast Europe.
Therefore, the correct answer to the question is “2 and 5,” which means Azerbaijan and Uzbekistan are the countries among the list that are members of the Organization of Turkic States.
Q. With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements :
1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status in the non-member States. 2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly. 3. Permanent Observes in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.
Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer: d) 1, 2 and 3
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
Observer Status for Non-Member States in UNGA
The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to non-member states. This allows entities that are not full member states of the United Nations to participate in the Assembly’s work without voting rights. An example of a non-member observer state is the Holy See (Vatican City).
Observer Status for Inter-Governmental Organizations
Inter-governmental organizations (IGOs) can also seek observer status in the UN General Assembly. This enables them to participate in the sessions and work of the Assembly, again without the right to vote. Examples of IGOs with observer status include the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) and the International Organization for Migration (IOM).
Functions of Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly
Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters. These missions are similar to the embassies that countries maintain in foreign capitals. They are staffed by diplomats and can be used to facilitate communication with the UN, participate in meetings, and carry out other functions related to their observer status.
1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya. 2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi. 3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 and 2 b) 2 only c) 2 and 3 d) 3 only
Correct Answer: c) 2 and 3
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
Bidibidi Refugee Settlement: Location and Population
The correct answer is indeed 2 and 3. Here’s why: Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement, but it is not located in north-western Kenya. Bidibidi is actually in Uganda, near the border with South Sudan. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Growth of Bidibidi as a Refuge for South Sudanese
Bidibidi has indeed become a home for many people who fled the civil war in South Sudan. Since its establishment, it has grown to become one of the largest refugee settlements in the world, hosting hundreds of thousands of South Sudanese refugees. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
Dadaab Refugee Complex in Kenya
The Dadaab refugee complex is indeed located in Kenya, and it has historically hosted a large population of refugees from Somalia, who have been fleeing the ongoing conflict and instability in their country. Dadaab has been one of the world’s largest refugee camps for many years. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.
In summary, Bidibidi is in Uganda and hosts South Sudanese refugees (making statement 2 correct), and Dadaab is in Kenya and has hosted Somali refugees (making statement 3 correct).
Q. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?
a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters. b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region. c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole. d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council. Correct Answer: a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
Polar Code
The ‘Polar Code’, formally known as the International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters, is a comprehensive set of regulations developed by the International Maritime Organization (IMO) aimed at enhancing the safety of ship operations and reducing environmental impacts in polar regions, including the Arctic and Antarctic waters.
Scope and Coverage of the Polar Code
The Polar Code includes a wide array of measures specifically designed for the unique conditions of the polar environments. It recognizes that standard maritime rules are not adequate to address the risks present in these areas. The Code contains provisions on ship design, construction, equipment, operational procedures, training, search and rescue, and environmental protection measures.
Addressing the Challenges of Polar Waters
Acknowledging the extreme weather conditions, presence of ice, and the remoteness of the polar regions, the Polar Code is designed to ensure that ships are sufficiently prepared to navigate the challenging conditions. It also aims to minimize the environmental footprint of maritime operations in these sensitive ecosystems.
Implementation and Applicability
The Polar Code is mandatory under the International Convention for the Safety of Life at Sea (SOLAS) and the International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships (MARPOL). It applies to both new and existing ships that are engaged in polar operations. The Code became effective on January 1, 2017, and is subject to ongoing updates to incorporate new information and technologies that can further enhance safety and environmental protection in polar waters.
Q. Consider the following statements : 1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. 2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
High and Low Clouds
The two statements provided address the effects of high and low clouds on Earth’s climate, specifically in terms of their interactions with solar radiation and infrared radiation. Let’s examine each statement:
High Clouds and Solar Radiation
The first statement suggests that high clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. However, this is not entirely accurate. High clouds, such as cirrus clouds, are thin and often composed of ice crystals. They do reflect some incoming solar radiation, but they also allow sunlight to pass through and reach the Earth’s surface. Furthermore, high clouds are effective at trapping outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth, leading to a warming effect known as the greenhouse effect. Consequently, the net effect of high clouds on Earth’s climate can be warming, rather than cooling.
Low Clouds and Infrared Radiation
The second statement claims that low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect. This statement is also not entirely correct. Low clouds, such as stratus clouds, are typically thicker and have a high albedo, meaning they are good at reflecting incoming solar radiation back into space, which tends to cool the Earth’s surface. While they do absorb some infrared radiation, they are more effective at reflecting it. The overall effect of low clouds is often a cooling one, as they reflect more sunlight than the amount of infrared radiation they trap.
Given the explanations above, the correct answer is “Neither 1 nor 2” because both statements contain inaccuracies regarding the effects of high and low clouds on Earth’s climate. High clouds can have a net warming effect due to their greenhouse properties, and low clouds generally have a net cooling effect because of their ability to reflect sunlight.
Q. With Reference to the “United Nations Credentials Committee”, consider the following statements:
1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision. 2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year. 3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 3 only b) 1 and 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 2 Correct Answer: a) 3 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
United Nations Credentials Committee
The United Nations Credentials Committee plays a crucial role in the functioning of the UN General Assembly. Contrary to what some might think, it is not a body established by the UN Security Council, but rather by the General Assembly itself. Its main task is to review and verify the credentials of member states’ representatives.
Common Misconceptions about the Credentials Committee
One common misconception is that the Committee operates under the supervision of the Security Council. In fact, it works under the authority of the General Assembly. Another incorrect belief is that it meets regularly in March, June, and September. The Committee does not follow such a predetermined schedule; it meets primarily during the General Assembly’s regular sessions, which typically commence in September, and as needed at other times.
The Role of the Credentials Committee
The primary role of the Credentials Committee is to assess the credentials of all UN member states’ representatives. After thorough examination, it submits a report to the General Assembly. The Assembly then approves these credentials, a necessary step for representatives to participate in its work. This process ensures that all members are properly represented and can engage in the Assembly’s activities.
Q. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?
a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound b) Non-Inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme
Correct Answer: a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
Greenwashing
Greenwashing is a deceptive marketing practice where a company falsely portrays its products, services, or business practices as environmentally friendly or sustainable. This misleading tactic involves using labels, advertising, and PR campaigns to create a facade of environmental responsibility, often to capitalize on consumer demand for eco-friendly products without making substantial changes.
The Goal of Greenwashing
The primary goal of greenwashing is to mislead consumers who are looking to make environmentally responsible choices, thereby benefiting from the market trend without being genuinely sustainable. This not only deceives consumers but also undermines the efforts of businesses that are truly committed to environmental sustainability.
Why Greenwashing Matters
Greenwashing matters because it hampers the ability of consumers to make informed decisions and supports businesses that are not truly invested in the environmental cause. By understanding and identifying greenwashing, consumers and regulators can push for more authentic and transparent environmental practices in the marketplace.
Q. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
a) Central water Commission b) Central Ground Water Board c) Central Ground Water Authority d) National Water Development Agency
Correct Answer: c) Central Ground Water Authority
Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper
Explanation :
Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA)
The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The CGWA was established by the Government of India under Section 3(3) of the Act, which empowers the central government to take all such measures as it deems necessary or expedient for the purpose of protecting and improving the quality of the environment and preventing, controlling, and abating environmental pollution.
The CGWA was created with the specific mandate to regulate and control the management of groundwater resources in India. It works in collaboration with state governments, local bodies, and other stakeholders to ensure that groundwater is managed sustainably.
Primary Responsibilities of CGWA
Issuing guidelines for the evaluation of proposals/requests for the extraction of groundwater.
Granting No Objection Certificates (NOCs) for the withdrawal of groundwater by industries/projects.
Monitoring and exercising control over groundwater development and management in the country.
Taking measures to prevent over-exploitation of groundwater resources.
Promoting rainwater harvesting and artificial recharge to groundwater to ensure the sustainability of the resource.
Response to Groundwater Concerns
The CGWA’s establishment was a response to the growing concerns over the depletion and contamination of groundwater resources, which are critical for drinking water, agriculture, and industrial uses in India.
Collaboration with Other Organizations
The other organizations mentioned – Central Water Commission, Central Ground Water Board, and National Water Development Agency – play different roles in water resource management in India but are not constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.