Prelims 2025 GS Solution

Q. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.

Q. Consider the following statements :

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer: (d) I, II and III

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

The incorrect statements are I, II, and III.

Statement I: Panchayats at the intermediate level do not exist in all States. Article 243B of the Indian Constitution states that Panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State with a population not exceeding twenty lakhs (2 million). Additionally, the 73rd Amendment Act, which established the Panchayati Raj system, does not apply to certain states like Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, and other specific areas.

Statement II: To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of twenty-one years, not thirty years. Article 243F of the Constitution specifies 21 years as the minimum age for contesting elections to Panchayats.

Statement III: The Chief Minister of a State does not constitute a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats. Instead, the Governor of a State constitutes a Finance Commission, as per Article 243I of the Indian Constitution, to review the financial position of Panchayats and make recommendations regarding the distribution of taxes and duties between the State and Panchayats.

Q. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission :

Q. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission :

I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.
II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM)

Statement I is correct because the Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) aims to benefit all Indian cattle and buffalo owners, with a particular focus on small and marginal farmers and women, who perform a significant portion of livestock farming tasks. This indicates its importance for the upliftment of the rural poor, as these groups often possess low-producing indigenous animals.

Statement II is correct because a key objective of the Rashtriya Gokul Mission is to promote the rearing and conservation of indigenous cattle and buffaloes in a scientific and holistic manner.

Q. Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission : Read More »

Q. I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.

Q. Consider the following statements :

I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.
II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.
III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only

Correct Answer: (c) I, II and III

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

The Earth’s atmosphere plays a crucial role in regulating the planet’s temperature, making it hospitable for life. This regulation is primarily achieved through the natural greenhouse effect.

I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.

This statement is true. Scientific calculations indicate that without the Earth’s atmosphere and the natural greenhouse effect, the planet’s average surface temperature would be significantly colder, approximately -18°C to -20°C. This temperature is well below the freezing point of water (0°C), implying that water on Earth would largely exist in a frozen state.

II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.

This statement is also correct. The atmosphere, through the greenhouse effect, absorbs and traps heat, preventing it from escaping directly into space. This process maintains Earth’s average surface temperature at approximately 15°C, which is conducive to life. The atmosphere acts as an insulating layer, akin to a “cozy blanket,” regulating the planet’s thermal balance.

III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

This statement is correct. Certain gases in the atmosphere, known as greenhouse gases, are highly effective at absorbing and re-emitting longwave (infrared) radiation that is radiated from the Earth’s surface. Carbon dioxide (CO2) is a prominent example of such a gas, known for its ability to absorb infrared energy at specific wavelengths, thereby contributing significantly to the trapping of heat within the atmosphere. Other greenhouse gases include water vapor, methane, and nitrous oxide.

All three statements are correct. So, the final answer is I, II and III

Q. I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface. Read More »

Q. Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.

Q. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.
Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.
Statement III : Clay is not at all porous.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
(c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Correct Answer: (c) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I.

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

Rocks, Clay, Chalk

Statement I is correct. Chalk is indeed known as a highly permeable rock, while clay is considered relatively impermeable or least permeable.

Statement II is correct. Chalk is porous, meaning it contains numerous tiny spaces or pores within its structure. Due to this porosity, chalk can absorb and allow water to pass through it, making it permeable.

Statement III is incorrect. Clay, although impermeable or least permeable, is actually porous. Clay has very fine pores, but due to their extremely small size and the nature of clay particles, water cannot easily pass through. Thus, clay is porous but impermeable because the pores are too small to allow water to flow freely.

Therefore, Statement II correctly explains Statement I, while Statement III is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is the correct choice.

Q. Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock. Read More »

Q. Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Q. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.
Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer : (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Isotherms are lines on a map that connect points of equal temperature. During January, it is winter in the Northern Hemisphere. Land cools down more rapidly and to a greater degree than water during winter. As a result, landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere become significantly colder than the oceans. This sharp decrease in temperature over land causes isotherms to bend sharply towards the south (equatorward) over continents, especially pronounced in areas like Europe and the Siberian plain.

Oceans have a higher heat capacity than land, meaning they absorb and release heat more slowly. Consequently, oceans retain heat longer and are relatively warmer than landmasses during winter. Warm ocean currents, such as the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift, further contribute to making the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer, causing isotherms to bend towards the north (poleward) over the oceans.

Therefore, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Land heats up and cools down more rapidly and to a greater degree than water. In January, which is winter in the Northern Hemisphere, landmasses cool down significantly, becoming much colder than the adjacent oceans. The air temperature over land fluctuates more because land changes its temperature much more rapidly than ocean water.

Water has a high specific heat capacity, meaning it takes more energy to change its temperature. This property allows oceans to store a large amount of heat and release it slowly, moderating the temperature of the overlying air. As a result, the air over oceans remains relatively warmer than the air over landmasses during the Northern Hemisphere winter.

Therefore, Statement II is correct.

Relationship between Statement I and Statement II:

The differential heating and cooling of land and water (Statement II) is the primary reason for the bending of isotherms (Statement I). Because land cools more rapidly and becomes colder than the oceans in winter, the isotherms dip southward (equatorward) over land to connect points of equal, colder temperatures. Conversely, because oceans retain heat and are warmer, the isotherms bend northward (poleward) over oceans to connect points of equal, warmer temperatures. This direct relationship indicates that Statement II explains Statement I.

Correct Answer : (a)

Q. Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans. Read More »

Q. Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

Q. Consider the following statements :

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.
Statement II : Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

Subtropical and Temperate Areas: Atmospheric or wind-borne fugitive dust, also known as aeolian dust, primarily originates from dry regions where high-speed winds can lift silt-sized material. A significant portion of the world’s deserts, which are major sources of dust, are located within the subtropics, where semi-permanent subtropical anticyclones reside. The Sahara Desert, the largest hot desert, is a major source of aeolian mineral dust, with its dust being transported across vast distances, including to the Caribbean and the Amazon basin. Human activities like grazing, ploughing, and vehicle use can also destabilize land and contribute to dust production in these areas. Temperate zones also include continental climates which can have more extreme temperatures and dry conditions in some areas.

Equatorial Regions: Tropical rainforest climates, or equatorial climates, are characterized by consistently high temperatures, plentiful precipitation, heavy cloud cover, and high humidity, with very little annual temperature variation. The constant low atmospheric pressure near the equator means winds are generally rare and weak, except for sea and land breezes in coastal areas. High rainfall in these regions tends to wash dust particles out of the atmosphere.

Polar Regions: Polar climates consist of cool summers and very cold winters, resulting in treeless tundras, glaciers, or permanent ice layers. While “diamond dust” (tiny ice crystals) is common in Antarctica and the Arctic, it’s a form of precipitation, not soil dust. The vast ice and snow cover limit exposed land for dust generation, and while some dust transport from other regions to the Arctic occurs, the primary sources of atmospheric dust are not typically located within the polar regions themselves.

Based on this, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Subtropical Areas: The Hadley cell, a global-scale atmospheric circulation pattern, involves air rising near the equator and descending in the subtropics at around 25-30 degrees latitude, creating high-pressure areas. This descending air is cool and dry, contributing to the formation of subtropical deserts. The surface flow of the Hadley cell, known as the trade winds, deviates westward, producing winds from the east. Mediterranean climates, a type of subtropical climate, are bounded by arid deserts on their equatorward sides that bring dry winds causing dry summers. In some humid subtropical regions, powerful anticyclonic and katabatic (downward-flowing) winds from Central Asia can lead to pronounced dry winters.

Temperate Areas: Temperate climates are influenced by various factors including prevailing wind direction. While some temperate regions experience humid conditions, others, particularly continental climates, can have more extreme temperatures and dry periods.

Therefore, Statement II, which claims that subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds, is incorrect. These regions are, in fact, characterized by significant dry winds, especially in subtropical desert areas.

Conclusion: Statement I is correct, but Statement II is not correct. Therefore, Statement II cannot explain Statement I.

Q. Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions. Read More »

Q. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

Q. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.
II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.
III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) II and III only

Correct Answer: (c) I, II and III

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

The phenomenon of continental drift, proposed by Alfred Wegener, is supported by several lines of evidence. Among these evidences are:

I. Matching of Ancient Rock Belts: The geological formations along the coastlines of continents separated by oceans today show remarkable similarities. For instance, the belt of ancient rocks found along the Brazilian coast matches closely with those found along the western coast of Africa. This strongly suggests that these continents were once joined together.

II. Similarity in Mineral Deposits: Mineral deposits, such as gold deposits found in Ghana, have geological continuity with similar deposits found in Brazil. This indicates that these continents were once contiguous, allowing mineral deposits to form in a continuous geological environment before the continents drifted apart.

III. Gondwana Sediments: The Gondwana system of sediments found in India has counterparts in other landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere, such as Africa, Australia, Antarctica, South America, and Madagascar. The presence of similar sedimentary deposits across these widely separated continents provides strong evidence that they were once part of a single large landmass known as Gondwanaland.

Thus, all three statements provided are correct evidences supporting the phenomenon of continental drift.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c): I, II and III.

Q. Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23:

Q. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23:

I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.
III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer: (d) I, II and III

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

India is the largest producer, consumer and exporter of turmeric in the world. In the year 2022-23, an area of 3.24 lakh ha was under turmeric cultivation in India with a production of 11.61 lakh tonnes (over 75% of global turmeric production). More than 30 varieties of Turmeric are grown in India and it is grown in over 20 states in the country. The largest producing states of Turmeric are Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

India has more than 62% share of world trade in turmeric. During 2022-23, 1.534 lakh tonnes of turmeric and turmeric products valued at 207.45 million USD was exported by more than 380 exporters The leading export markets for Indian Turmeric are Bangladesh, UAE, USA and Malaysia. With the focused activities of the Board, it is expected that turmeric exports will reach USD 1 Billion by 2030.

Source : PIB 

Q. Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23: Read More »

Q. Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

Q. Consider the following countries :
I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia
IV. Ecuador
V. Paraguay
VI. Venezuela

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) Only five

Correct Answer: (c) Only four

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

I. Bolivia: The Andes Mountains run through Bolivia, dominating the western part of the country.

II. Brazil: The Andes Mountains do not pass through Brazil. The mountain ranges in Brazil are separate from the Andes.

III. Colombia: The Andes Mountains extend into Colombia, where they split into three parallel ranges.

IV. Ecuador: The Andes Mountains pass through Ecuador, forming two main chains with valleys in between.

V. Paraguay: The Andes Mountains do not pass through Paraguay. Paraguay lies to the east of the Andes.

VI. Venezuela: The Andes Mountains form the northernmost extension of the range in Venezuela.

Therefore, the Andes Mountains pass through Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, and Venezuela. This makes a total of four countries.

Q. Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries? Read More »

Q. How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

Q. Consider the following countries :
I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

(a) Only three
(b) Only four
(c) Only five
(d) All the six

Correct Answer : (b) Only four

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

NATO Membership

I. Austria: Austria is a member of NATO’s Partnership for Peace program, but not a full NATO member.

II. Bulgaria: Bulgaria became a NATO member in 2004.

III. Croatia: Croatia became a NATO member in 2009.

IV. Serbia: Serbia is a member of NATO’s Partnership for Peace program, but not a full NATO member.

V. Sweden: Sweden became a NATO member in March 2024.

VI. North Macedonia: North Macedonia became a NATO member in 2020.

Therefore, Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia are members of NATO. This makes a total of four countries.

Q. How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization? Read More »