Prelims CSAT 2025

Q. Consider a set of 11 numbers: Value-I = Minimum value of the average of the numbers of the set when they are consecutive integers ≥ -5.

Q. Consider a set of 11 numbers:
Value-I = Minimum value of the average of the numbers of the set when they are consecutive integers ≥ -5.
Value-II = Minimum value of the product of the numbers of the set when they are consecutive non-negative integers.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Value-I < Value-II
(b) Value-II < Value-I
(c) Value-I = Value-II
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Correct Answer : (c) Value-I = Value-II

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Explanation : 

We have a set of 11 consecutive integers in each case.

Value-I: “Minimum average when the 11 numbers are consecutive integers ≥ –5.”
1. If the 11 numbers are consecutive and all ≥ –5, the smallest possible sequence is
−5, −4, −3, −2, −1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5.
2. The average of 11 equally spaced numbers is the middle (6th) term. Here the 6th term is 0.
3. Any shift upward (starting at −4 or higher) would increase every term, hence increase the average.
⇒ Minimum average = 0.
So Value-I = 0.

Value-II: “Minimum product when the 11 numbers are consecutive non-negative integers.”
1. Let the sequence be k, k+1, …, k+10 with k ≥ 0.
2. If k = 0, the sequence is 0, 1, 2, …, 10, and the product is 0.
3. For any k ≥ 1, all terms are positive and the product > 0.
⇒ Minimum product = 0.
So Value-II = 0.

Comparison: Value-I = 0 and Value-II = 0, hence
Answer: (c) Value-I = Value-II.

Q. Consider a set of 11 numbers: Value-I = Minimum value of the average of the numbers of the set when they are consecutive integers ≥ -5. Read More »

Q. Let p + q = 10, where p, q are integers. Value-I = Maximum value of p × q when p, q are positive integers.

Q. Let p + q = 10, where p, q are integers.
Value-I = Maximum value of p × q when p, q are positive integers.
Value-II = Maximum value of p × q when p ≥ -6, q ≥ -4.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) Value-I < Value-II
(b) Value-II < Value-I
(c) Value-I = Value-II
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Correct Answer : (c) Value-I = Value-II

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Explanation : 

We are given p + q = 10, where p and q are integers.

Value-I: Maximum of p·q when p, q are positive integers
1. Positive integers mean p ≥ 1 and q ≥ 1.
2. Since p + q = 10, possible pairs (p,q) are:
(1,9) → 1·9 = 9
(2,8) → 2·8 = 16
(3,7) → 3·7 = 21
(4,6) → 4·6 = 24
(5,5) → 5·5 = 25
(6,4) etc. (symmetric, same products).
3. The maximum product among these is 25 (at p = 5, q = 5).
So Value-I = 25.

Value-II: Maximum of p·q when p ≥ –6, q ≥ –4 (still with p + q = 10)
1. From p + q = 10, we have q = 10 – p.
2. The constraint q ≥ –4 gives 10 – p ≥ –4 ⇒ p ≤ 14.
Combined with p ≥ –6, we get p ∈ {–6, –5, …, 14}.
3. The product is
p·q = p(10 – p) = –p² + 10p,
which is a downward-opening parabola in p.
4. The vertex of –p² + 10p occurs at p = (10)/(2) = 5, giving
p·q = 5·(10 – 5) = 25.
5. Checking the endpoints (p = –6 or p = 14) yields negative products, so the maximum is indeed 25 at p = 5, q = 5.
So Value-II = 25.

Comparison: Value-I = 25 and Value-II = 25, hence
Answer: (c) Value-I = Value-II.

Q. Let p + q = 10, where p, q are integers. Value-I = Maximum value of p × q when p, q are positive integers. Read More »

Q. In a T20 cricket match, three players X, Y and Z scored a total of 37 runs. The ratio of number of runs scored by X to the number of runs scored by Y is equal to ratio of number of runs scored by Y to number of runs scored by Z.

Q. In a T20 cricket match, three players X, Y and Z scored a total of 37 runs.

The ratio of number of runs scored by X to the number of runs scored by Y is equal to ratio of number of runs scored by Y to number of runs scored by Z.

Value-I = Runs scored by X
Value-II = Runs scored by Y
Value-III = Runs scored by Z

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Value-I < Value-II < Value-III
(b) Value-III < Value-II < Value-I
(c) Value-I < Value-III < Value-II
(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Correct Answer : d)

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Explanation : 

1. Let X, Y, Z be the runs scored by players X, Y, Z respectively.
We know
X + Y + Z = 37
X/Y = Y/Z.

2. From X/Y = Y/Z ⇒ X·Z = Y².
A standard integer‐solution parametrization is
X = d·r²,
Y = d·r·s,
Z = d·s²,
where d, r, s are positive integers.

3. Then
X + Y + Z = d (r² + r·s + s²) = 37.
Since 37 is prime, the only way to factor is d = 1 and r² + r·s + s² = 37.

4. Solve r² + r·s + s² = 37 in positive integers (r, s):
– Try s = 3 ⇒ r² + 3r + 9 = 37 ⇒ r² + 3r − 28 = 0 ⇒ r = 4 (positive root).
– Or by symmetry r = 3, s = 4 also works (3² + 3·4 + 4² = 9 + 12 + 16 = 37).

5. Thus two possible triples (d = 1):
a) (r, s) = (4, 3) ⇒ (X, Y, Z) = (16, 12, 9) ⇒ X > Y > Z.
b) (r, s) = (3, 4) ⇒ (X, Y, Z) = ( 9, 12,16) ⇒ X < Y < Z.

6. These give different orderings of Value-I (X), Value-II (Y), Value-III (Z), so we cannot decide uniquely which is smallest, middle or largest.

Therefore the data are insufficient to fix the ordering; the correct choice is (d).

Q. In a T20 cricket match, three players X, Y and Z scored a total of 37 runs. The ratio of number of runs scored by X to the number of runs scored by Y is equal to ratio of number of runs scored by Y to number of runs scored by Z. Read More »

Q. Question: Is (p + q)² – 4pq, where p, q are natural numbers, positive?

Q. A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option.

Question: Is (p + q)² – 4pq, where p, q are natural numbers, positive?

Statement I: p < q.
Statement II: p > q.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

(a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
(b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
(c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
(d) The Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements.

Correct Answer : b)

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Explanation : 

1. Expand the expression:
(p + q)² – 4pq
= p² + 2pq + q² – 4pq
= p² – 2pq + q²
= (p – q)².

2. We ask: Is (p – q)² positive?
– (p – q)² is zero exactly when p = q.
– It is positive whenever p ≠ q.

3. Examine each statement:

Statement I: p < q
→ Then p ≠ q, so (p – q)² > 0.
→ The expression is positive.

Statement II: p > q
→ Again p ≠ q, so (p – q)² > 0.
→ The expression is positive.

Each statement by itself guarantees p ≠ q, hence the expression is positive. Therefore, either statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Final choice: (b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.

Q. Question: Is (p + q)² – 4pq, where p, q are natural numbers, positive? Read More »

Q. Question: In a football match, team P playing against Q was behind by 3 goals with 10 minutes remaining. Does team P win the match?

Q. A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option.

Question: In a football match, team P playing against Q was behind by 3 goals with 10 minutes remaining. Does team P win the match?

Statement I: Team P scored 4 goals in the last 10 minutes.
Statement II: Team Q scored a total of 4 goals in the match.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

(a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
(b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
(c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
(d) The Question cannot be answered even using any of the Statements.

Correct Answer : d)

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Explanation : 

Let
Gq₀ = goals scored by Q up to the 80th minute,
Gp₀ = goals scored by P up to the 80th minute.

We know at 80′ Q was ahead by 3 goals:
Gq₀ − Gp₀ = 3 …(1)

Call in the last 10 minutes:
P scores 4 goals (Statement I),
Q scores B goals (unknown).

Thus final tallies are
Gp_f = Gp₀ + 4,
Gq_f = Gq₀ + B.

Statement II says total goals by Q in whole match is 4, so
Gq_f = 4 ⇒ Gq₀ + B = 4. …(2)

From (1): Gp₀ = Gq₀ − 3, so
Gp_f = (Gq₀ − 3) + 4 = Gq₀ + 1.

Then the final goal‐difference is
Gp_f − Gq_f = (Gq₀ + 1) − 4 = Gq₀ − 3.

But from (2) and non‐negativity of B, we get Gq₀ is either 3 or 4 (since Gq₀ + B = 4 and B ≥ 0).

Case 1: Gq₀ = 4, B = 0 ⇒ Gp_f − Gq_f = 1 ⇒ P wins.
Case 2: Gq₀ = 3, B = 1 ⇒ Gp_f − Gq_f = 0 ⇒ It’s a draw.

Since with both statements together P may win or may only draw, we cannot be sure.
Neither statement alone gives a unique answer, and even together they leave two possibilities. Hence (d).

Q. Question: In a football match, team P playing against Q was behind by 3 goals with 10 minutes remaining. Does team P win the match? Read More »

Q. Question: How is Q related to P? Statement I: P has two sisters, R and S.

Q. A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option.

Question: How is Q related to P?

Statement I: P has two sisters, R and S.
Statement II: R’s father is the brother of Q.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

(a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
(b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
(c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
(d) The Question cannot be answered even using any of the Statements.

Correct Answer : d)

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Explanation : 

Assess Statement I alone:
I. “P has two sisters, R and S.”
– This tells us P’s siblings but nothing about Q.
⇒ Statement I alone is insufficient.

Assess Statement II alone:
II. “R’s father is the brother of Q.”
– R’s father is also P’s father (since R is P’s sister).
– So P’s father is the brother of Q ⇒ Q is a sibling of P’s father ⇒ Q is either P’s paternal uncle or paternal aunt.
– But we do not know Q’s gender ⇒ cannot decide uncle vs. aunt.
⇒ Statement II alone is insufficient to pin down the exact relationship.

Combine I and II:
– I only tells us R and S are sisters of P; II tells us Q is a sibling of their father.
– Even together, Q could be male or female ⇒ still “paternal uncle / aunt” ambiguous.
⇒ Both statements together remain insufficient to give a definite single relationship.

Therefore, the question cannot be answered even using any of the statements.
Correct option: (d).

Q. Question: How is Q related to P? Statement I: P has two sisters, R and S. Read More »

Q. Question: Let P, Q, R, S be distinct non-zero digits. If PP × PQ = RRSS, where P ≤ 3 and Q ≤ 4, then what is Q equal to?

Q. A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option.

Question: Let P, Q, R, S be distinct non-zero digits. If PP × PQ = RRSS, where P ≤ 3 and Q ≤ 4, then what is Q equal to?

Statement I: R = 1.
Statement II: S = 2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

(a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
(b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
(c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
(d) The Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements.

Correct Answer : d)

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Explanation : 

We need to find digits P,Q,R,S (all nonzero and distinct), with P≤3, Q≤4, such that
  PP × PQ = RRSS
(where “PP” means the two-digit number with both digits P, etc.).

Step 1. List possible values of PP (since P≤3 and nonzero):
 P=1 → PP=11
 P=2 → PP=22
 P=3 → PP=33

Step 2. For each P, try Q (1 through 4, but Q≠P) and compute PP×PQ. We need a 4-digit product of the form RRSS.

1) P=1 → PP=11, PQ=10+Q gives 11×11=121 up to 11×14=154, all 3-digit. No good.

2) P=2 → PP=22, PQ=20+Q gives 22×21=462, 22×23=506, 22×24=528, all 3-digit. No good.

3) P=3 → PP=33, PQ=30+Q:
 33×31 = 1023 (not of form RRSS)
 33×32 = 1056 (no)
 33×34 = 1122 → this is “RRSS” with R=1, S=2, and all digits {3,4,1,2} are distinct.

No other choice works. Hence the only solution is P=3, Q=4, R=1, S=2.

Thus Q=4 and it is uniquely determined from the question itself, without using either statement.

Therefore the correct answer is (d):
“The Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements.”

Q. Question: Let P, Q, R, S be distinct non-zero digits. If PP × PQ = RRSS, where P ≤ 3 and Q ≤ 4, then what is Q equal to? Read More »

Q. Question: What is the smallest 1-digit number having exactly 4 distinct factors?

Q. A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option.

Question: What is the smallest 1-digit number having exactly 4 distinct factors?

Statement I: 2 is one of the factors.
Statement II: 3 is one of the factors.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

(a) The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other statement alone.
(b) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
(c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
(d) The Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements

Correct Answer : a)

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Explanation : 

1. Find all 1-digit numbers with exactly 4 distinct positive factors.
– List 1-digit numbers 1 through 9 and their factor counts:
1 → {1} (1 factor)
2 → {1,2} (2 factors)
3 → {1,3} (2 factors)
4 → {1,2,4} (3 factors)
5 → {1,5} (2 factors)
6 → {1,2,3,6} (4 factors)
7 → {1,7} (2 factors)
8 → {1,2,4,8} (4 factors)
9 → {1,3,9} (3 factors)
– So the candidates are 6 and 8, and the smallest is 6.

2. Use Statement I (“2 is one of the factors”):
– Both 6 and 8 have 2 as a factor.
– We cannot decide between 6 and 8.
– So Statement I alone is insufficient.

3. Use Statement II (“3 is one of the factors”):
– Among 1-digit numbers with 4 factors, only 6 has 3 as a factor.
– This pins down the answer uniquely to 6.
– Statement II alone is sufficient.

Conclusion: Statement II alone suffices, but Statement I does not. Hence option (a).

Q. Question: What is the smallest 1-digit number having exactly 4 distinct factors? Read More »

Q. What is the remainder when 9³ + 9⁴ + 9⁵ + 9⁶ + … + 9¹⁰⁰ is divided by 6?

Q. What is the remainder when 9³ + 9⁴ + 9⁵ + 9⁶ + … + 9¹⁰⁰ is divided by 6?

(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) 3

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Explanation : 

1. Note that 9 ≡ 3 (mod 6).
2. Then for any k ≥ 1,
9^k ≡ 3^k (mod 6).
3. But 3^1 ≡ 3 (mod 6), and multiplying by 3 again gives
3^2 = 9 ≡ 3 (mod 6),
3^3 = 27 ≡ 3 (mod 6),
and so on.
By induction, 3^k ≡ 3 (mod 6) for every k ≥ 1.
4. The sum 9³ + 9⁴ + … + 9¹⁰⁰ has 100 – 3 + 1 = 98 terms, each ≡ 3 (mod 6).
5. Total ≡ 98 × 3 = 294 ≡ 0 (mod 6).

Q. What is the remainder when 9³ + 9⁴ + 9⁵ + 9⁶ + … + 9¹⁰⁰ is divided by 6? Read More »

Q. In a certain code if 64 is written as 343 and 216 is written as 729, then how is 512 written in that code?

Q. In a certain code if 64 is written as 343 and 216 is written as 729, then how is 512 written in that code?

(a) 1000
(b) 1331
(c) 1728
(d) 2197

Correct Answer : (b) 1331

UPSC Prelims 2025 CSAT

Explanation : 

1. Observe that
64 = 4³ and its code 343 = 7³
216 = 6³ and its code 729 = 9³

2. In each case the cube‐root is increased by 3:
4 → 7 (4 + 3 = 7)
6 → 9 (6 + 3 = 9)

3. Apply the same rule to 512:
512 = 8³
Increase 8 by 3 → 11
Cube it → 11³ = 1331

Hence, 512 is written as 1331.

Q. In a certain code if 64 is written as 343 and 216 is written as 729, then how is 512 written in that code? Read More »