Q. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Evaporation of sweat from human skin dissipates body heat. Reason (R) : High humidity on a hot day increases discomfort.
Select the correct answer from the code given below : a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) b) (A) is false, but (R) is true c) (A) is true, but (R) is false d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Correct Answer: a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2025
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: Evaporation of sweat removes latent heat from the skin. The phase change from liquid to vapor requires energy (latent heat of vaporization), which is taken from the body, thereby cooling it and dissipating body heat.
Reason (R) is also true: High humidity reduces the rate of evaporation because the air is already moist, diminishing the vapor pressure gradient. With less evaporation, the body cools less effectively, leading to greater discomfort on hot, humid days.
However, (R) does not correctly explain (A). (R) describes a related consequence (why discomfort increases in humidity) rather than explaining the mechanism of how evaporation dissipates heat. A proper explanation of (A) would mention latent heat removal, not humidity effects.
Q. Consider the following Election Reforms in India and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from earliest to the last.
1. Voters photo identity card 2. Electronic voting machine 3. Voter verifiable paper audit trail 4. NOTA Select the correct answer from the code given below : a) 2, 1, 3, 4 b) 1, 2, 4, 3 c) 1, 2, 3, 4 d) 2, 1, 4, 3 Correct Answer: a) 2, 1, 3, 4
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2025
Explanation:
– Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) came first: piloted in 1982 (Paravur, Kerala), later given statutory backing and rolled out widely (nationwide by 2004). – Voter Photo Identity Card (EPIC) was launched by the Election Commission in 1993 under T. N. Seshan. – Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) was introduced/piloted on 4 September 2013 (Noksen bypoll, Nagaland) and later mandated for wider rollout (SC judgment in Oct 2013), reaching nationwide usage by 2019. – NOTA was introduced pursuant to the Supreme Court judgment (PUCL v. Union of India) on 27 September 2013 and first used in assembly elections later in 2013.
Therefore, the correct chronological order is: 2 (EVM), 1 (Photo ID), 3 (VVPAT), 4 (NOTA).
Q. Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana comes under which of the following ?
1. Ministry of Corporate Affairs 2. Ministry of Rural Development 3. Ministry of Finance Select the correct answer from the code given below: a) 1 and 2 b) Only 3 c) 2 and 3 d) Only 1 Correct Answer: b) Only 3
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2025
Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) is administered by the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Finance. MUDRA Ltd. (set up under SIDBI) provides refinance to banks/NBFCs/MFIs that lend under PMMY to non-corporate, non-farm micro enterprises.
Q. The Appiko Movement is associated with which of the following Indian States ?
1. Uttarakhand 2. Uttar Pradesh 3. Kerala 4. Karnataka Select the correct answer from the code given below: a) 1 and 2 b) Only 4 c) 3 and 4 d) Only 1 Correct Answer: b) Only 4
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2025
Explanation:
Appiko is Karnataka’s version of the Chipko movement. It began in 1983 in the Uttara Kannada (Sirsi) region under Panduranga Hegde; ‘Appiko’ in Kannada means ‘to embrace,’ referring to hugging trees to prevent felling. Therefore, it is associated only with Karnataka (state 4).
Q. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List – I (Ruler) A. Mahendraverman First B. Kadungon C. Amoghavarsha First D. Rajaraja First List – II (Dynasty) 1. Rashtrakuta 2. Pallava 3. Chola 4. Pandya a) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 c) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 Correct Answer: b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2025
Explanation:
Mapping: – A. Mahendravarman I → Pallava (2): Early 7th-century Pallava ruler, known for rock-cut temples (e.g., Mandagapattu), father of Narasimhavarman I. – B. Kadungon → Pandya (4): Pandya king credited with ending the Kalabhra interregnum and reviving Pandya power. – C. Amoghavarsha I → Rashtrakuta (1): Eminent Rashtrakuta ruler of Manyakheta, patron of Jainism, author of Kavirajamarga. – D. Rajaraja I → Chola (3): Great Chola emperor, builder of Brihadisvara Temple, major imperial expansions.
Q. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): India’s success is critical for the global success of Sustainable Development Goals. Reason (R): India accounts for nearly one-sixth of the total world population. Select the correct answer from the code given below : a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) b) (A) is false, but (R) is true c) (A) is true, but (R) is false d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) Correct Answer: d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2025
Explanation:
Both statements are true, and the Reason explains the Assertion. A: India’s success is pivotal for the global achievement of the SDGs because many SDG outcomes (poverty reduction, hunger, health, education, sanitation, energy access, etc.) are measured in global aggregates or are heavily influenced by large-population countries. R: India accounts for nearly one-sixth (about 17–18%) of the world’s population. This demographic weight means India’s performance substantially shifts global totals and averages; without major gains in India, the world cannot meet many SDG targets. Therefore, R provides the rationale for A.
Q. With reference to ‘Vice-President of India’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Vice-President is a member of the Rajya Sabha. Select the correct answer from the code given below : a) Both 1 and 2 b) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Only 2 d) Only 1 Correct Answer: d) Only 1
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2025
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Under Articles 64 and 89 of the Constitution, the Vice-President is the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Vice-President, as Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, is not a member of the House. He presides over its proceedings and has only a casting vote in case of a tie. In contrast, the Deputy Chairman is elected from among Rajya Sabha members and is a member.
Q. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Food security is necessary even in surplus food production years. Reason (R): Starvation can still occur due to unequal distribution and lack of accessibility.
Select the correct answer from the code given below : a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) b) (A) is false, but (R) is true c) (A) is true, but (R) is false d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). Correct Answer: d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2025
Explanation:
Assertion (A) is true: Food security is needed even in years of surplus production because food security is not only about availability; it also includes access, utilization, and stability. Surplus addresses availability but not whether people can physically or economically access food. Reason (R) is true and correctly explains (A): Starvation can occur due to unequal distribution, poor purchasing power, market failures, transport/logistics gaps, and exclusion from safety nets—hence the need for food security measures (PDS, buffer stocks, targeted distribution) even in surplus years. This aligns with Amartya Sen’s entitlement approach, which shows famines and hunger can occur without a decline in aggregate food availability.
Q. Arrange the following electromagnetic radiations in decreasing order of their frequencies.
1. Gamma rays 2. Ultraviolet rays 3. Radio waves 4. X-rays Select the correct answer from the code given below: a) 1, 4, 3, 2 b) 4, 1, 2, 3 c) 1, 4, 2, 3 d) 4, 1, 3, 2 Correct Answer: c) 1, 4, 2, 3
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2025
Explanation:
Decreasing frequency means from highest to lowest. In the electromagnetic spectrum: Gamma rays > X-rays > Ultraviolet > Radio waves (since frequency is inversely proportional to wavelength and gamma rays have the shortest wavelengths while radio waves have the longest). Hence the correct order among the given is 1 (Gamma), 4 (X-ray), 2 (UV), 3 (Radio).
Q. Which of the following rivers fall into the Arabian Sea ?
1. Periyar 2. Pennar 3. Palar Select the correct answer from the code given below : a) Only 1 b) Only 3 c) 2 and 3 d) 1 and 2 Correct Answer: a) Only 1
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2025
Explanation:
• Periyar (1): A west-flowing river of Kerala; it debouches into the Arabian Sea via the Kochi backwaters/Cochin estuary (Vembanad). Hence, it falls into the Arabian Sea. • Pennar (2): East-flowing (Penna/North Pennar); drains into the Bay of Bengal near Nellore. Not Arabian Sea. • Palar (3): East-flowing; meets the Bay of Bengal near the Kalpakkam–Mahabalipuram region in Tamil Nadu. Not Arabian Sea. Therefore, only 1 falls into the Arabian Sea.