UPPSC Prelims Solution

Q. The UPSC derives its functions from which of the following sources ?

Q. The UPSC derives its functions from which of the following sources?

1. The Constitution
2. Parliamentary Laws
3. Executive Rules and Orders
4. Conventions

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 4
c) Only 1
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: c) Only 1

Explanation:

Functions of UPSC

Under Article 320 of the Constitution of India, the Commission is, inter-alia, required to be consulted on all matters relating to recruitment to civil services and posts. The functions of the Commission under Article 320 of the Constitution are:

  1. Conduct examinations for appointment to the services of the Union.
  2. Direct recruitment by selection through interviews.
  3. Appointment of officers on promotion / deputation / absorption.
  4. Framing and amendment of Recruitment Rules for various services and posts under the Government.
  5. Disciplinary cases relating to different Civil Services.
  6. Advising the Government on any matter referred to the Commission by the President of India.

Source : UPSC Website 

Q. The UPSC derives its functions from which of the following sources ? Read More »

Q. Which one of the following is correctly matched ? Constitutional Body Constitutional Article

Q. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
Constitutional Body – Constitutional Article

a) Election Commission – 165
b) National Commission for Scheduled Castes – 148
c) Finance Commission – 263
d) National Commission for Backward Classes – 340

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

The correct answer is: d) National Commission for Backward Classes – 340

Explanation:

a) Election Commission – 165

This is incorrect. The Election Commission is mentioned under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, not Article 165. Article 165 deals with the Advocate General of the State.

b) National Commission for Scheduled Castes – 148

This is incorrect. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes is mentioned under Article 338 of the Indian Constitution. Article 148 deals with the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

c) Finance Commission – 263

This is incorrect. The Finance Commission is mentioned under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. Article 263 deals with the provisions related to the Inter-State Council.

d) National Commission for Backward Classes – 340

This is correct. The National Commission for Backward Classes is mentioned under Article 340 of the Indian Constitution, which provides for the appointment of a commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes.

Final Answer: d) National Commission for Backward Classes – 340

Q. Which one of the following is correctly matched ? Constitutional Body Constitutional Article Read More »

Q. List-I contains the names of countries, whereas List-II shows the rank as remittances received in the year 2022.

Q. List-I contains the names of countries, whereas List-II shows the Rank as remittances received in the year 2022

Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :

List-I (Country) A. Mexico B. China C. India D. Philippines

List-II (Rank) 1. First 2. Second 3. Third 4. Fourth

Codes:

a) 4 1 2 3
b) 2 3 1 4
c) 3 2 4 1
d) 1 2 3 4

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: b) 2 3 1 4

Explanation:

  • India: Ranked 1st with over $111 billion in remittances.
  • Mexico: Ranked 2nd with over $61 billion in remittances.
  • China: Ranked 3rd with approximately $51 billion in remittances.
  • Philippines: Ranked 4th with about $38 billion in remittances.

Q. List-I contains the names of countries, whereas List-II shows the rank as remittances received in the year 2022. Read More »

Assertion (A): There is a positive relationship between Human Development Index (HDI) and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ranking of Indian States. Reason (R): The underlying dimensions of SDG targets are closely related to education and health aspects.

Q. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): There is a positive relationship between Human Development Index (HDI) and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ranking of Indian States.
Reason (R): The underlying dimensions of SDG targets are closely related to education and health aspects.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

The correct answer is: c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

– Assertion (A): There is a positive relationship between Human Development Index (HDI) and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ranking of Indian States.

This statement is true because HDI measures development in terms of health, education, and income, which are also key components of the SDGs. States with higher HDI scores tend to perform better in SDG rankings as they align with similar developmental goals.

– Reason (R): The underlying dimensions of SDG targets are closely related to education and health aspects.

This statement is also true because many SDG targets (e.g., SDG 3: Good Health and Well-being, SDG 4: Quality Education) directly focus on improving health and education, which are also core dimensions of HDI.

– Link between (A) and (R): The positive relationship mentioned in the assertion exists because the SDG targets overlap significantly with the dimensions of HDI, particularly in education and health. Therefore, the reason (R) correctly explains the assertion (A).

Thus, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Assertion (A): There is a positive relationship between Human Development Index (HDI) and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ranking of Indian States. Reason (R): The underlying dimensions of SDG targets are closely related to education and health aspects. Read More »

Q. With reference to the “National Food Security Act”, which of the following statements are correct?

Q. With reference to the “National Food Security Act”, which of the following statements are correct?

1. It will cover up to 75% rural and 50% urban population.
2. It has a special focus on nutritional support to women and children.
3. It was enforced on July 5, 2010.

a) 2 and 3 are correct.
b) 1 and 3 are correct.
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
d) 1 and 2 are correct.

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: d) 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: It will cover up to 75% rural and 50% urban population.

– This statement is correct. As per the National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population are entitled to receive subsidized food grains under the Act. This is explicitly mentioned in the salient features of the Act.

2. Statement 2: It has a special focus on nutritional support to women and children.

– This statement is correct. The NFSA places a strong emphasis on nutritional support for vulnerable groups, particularly pregnant women, lactating mothers, and children. For example:

– Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a nutritious “take-home ration” of 600 calories and a maternity benefit of at least ₹6,000 for six months.

– Children aged 6 months to 14 years are entitled to free hot meals or “take-home rations.”

– This demonstrates the Act’s focus on improving nutrition for women and children.

3. Statement 3: It was enforced on July 5, 2010.

– This statement is incorrect. The NFSA was signed into law on September 12, 2013, but it was made retroactive to July 5, 2013. It was introduced in Parliament in December 2012 and promulgated as a presidential ordinance on July 5, 2013. There is no connection to the year 2010.

– Therefore, the correct answer is d) 1 and 2 are correct.

Source: https://controllerofrationing-mumbai.gov.in/scheme/national-food-security-act-2013/

Q. With reference to the “National Food Security Act”, which of the following statements are correct? Read More »

Q. With reference to India, consider the following events : 1. Nationalisation of Banks 2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks 3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches

Q. With reference to India, consider the following events:

1. Nationalisation of Banks
2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks
3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches.

Which of the above events can be considered as steps taken to achieve financial inclusion in India?

a) Only 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) Only 1 and 2
d) Only 3

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: b) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Financial inclusion refers to the process of ensuring access to financial services and timely and adequate credit for vulnerable groups such as weaker sections and low-income groups at an affordable cost. All three events mentioned in the question are significant steps taken to achieve financial inclusion in India. Here’s how:

1. Nationalisation of Banks (1969 and 1980):

– The nationalisation of banks was a major step to bring banking services to the masses, especially in rural and semi-urban areas. Before nationalisation, banking services were largely concentrated in urban areas and catered to the needs of industrialists and wealthy individuals. Nationalisation ensured that banks focused on priority sectors like agriculture, small-scale industries, and rural development, thereby promoting financial inclusion.

2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) (1975):

– RRBs were established to provide credit and other financial services to small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, and rural artisans. These banks were specifically designed to cater to the rural population, which was underserved by commercial banks. This was a direct step toward improving financial inclusion in rural areas.

3. Adoption of Villages by Bank Branches:

– Under various schemes, banks were encouraged to adopt villages to provide banking services and promote financial literacy. This initiative aimed to bring unbanked rural areas into the formal banking system, thereby enhancing financial inclusion.

Hence, the correct answer is b) 1, 2 and 3.

Q. With reference to India, consider the following events : 1. Nationalisation of Banks 2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks 3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches Read More »

Assertion (A) : The value of national currency is determined by demand and supply of foreign currency called flexible exchange rate. Reason (R) : Demand and supply of the foreign currency is being determined by the Central Bank.

Q. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The value of national currency is determined by demand and supply of foreign currency called flexible exchange rate.
Reason (R): Demand and supply of the foreign currency is being determined by the Central Bank.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

The correct answer is: d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:

– Assertion (A): The value of a national currency is determined by the demand and supply of foreign currency under a flexible exchange rate system. This statement is true because, in a flexible exchange rate system, the exchange rate is determined by market forces—i.e., the interaction of demand and supply for foreign currency in the foreign exchange market.

– Reason (R): The demand and supply of foreign currency are determined by the Central Bank. This statement is false because, under a flexible exchange rate system, the Central Bank does not directly control or determine the demand and supply of foreign currency. Instead, these are influenced by factors such as trade flows, capital flows, interest rates, and economic conditions. The Central Bank may intervene in a managed or fixed exchange rate system, but not in a purely flexible system.

Thus, while the assertion is correct, the reason provided is incorrect.

Assertion (A) : The value of national currency is determined by demand and supply of foreign currency called flexible exchange rate. Reason (R) : Demand and supply of the foreign currency is being determined by the Central Bank. Read More »

Q. With reference to “India – Australia Economic Co-operation and Trade Agreement (Ind – Aus ECTA)”, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

Q. With reference to “India – Australia Economic Co-operation and Trade Agreement (Ind – Aus ECTA)”, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. This is a first-of-its-kind initiative of FTAs.
2. The meeting was attended by the Commerce Secretary of India, Shri Sunil Barthwal.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a) Only 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Only 1
d) Both 1 and 2

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

1. First-of-its-kind initiative of FTAs: This statement is incorrect. While the Ind-Aus ECTA is significant, it is not the first of its kind; there are several other free trade agreements (FTAs) in existence between various countries.

2. Attendance of Commerce Secretary Sunil Barthwal: This statement is correct. The meeting was indeed attended by the Commerce Secretary of India, Shri Sunil Barthwal, who led the Indian delegation during discussions about trade and investment issues under the ECTA.

Based on this analysis, the correct answer is: a) Only 2.

Q. With reference to “India – Australia Economic Co-operation and Trade Agreement (Ind – Aus ECTA)”, which of the following statements is/are correct ? Read More »

Q. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List-I (Joint Exercise) A. India – Uzbekistan Joint Military Exercise, “DUSTLIK”

Q. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Joint Exercise)
A. India – Uzbekistan Joint Military Exercise, “DUSTLIK”
B. India – France Joint Military Exercise, “SHAKTI”
C. Harbour phase of Indo – US Joint Exercise, Tiger Triumph, 2024
D. MILAN, 2024

List-II (Dates)
1. February 19 – 27, 2024
2. May 13 – 26, 2024
3. April 15 – 28, 2024
4. March 18 – 25, 2024

Codes:
a) 3 4 1 2
b) 3 2 4 1
c) 4 2 1 3
d) 2 3 1 4

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: b) 3 2 4 1

Explanation:

1. A. India – Uzbekistan Joint Military Exercise, “DUSTLIK”

– The 5th edition of Exercise DUSTLIK is scheduled to be conducted from 15th to 28th April 2024 in Termez, Uzbekistan.

– Correct match: A → 3

2. B. India – France Joint Military Exercise, “SHAKTI”

– The 7th edition of Exercise SHAKTI is scheduled to be conducted from 13th to 26th May 2024 at Umroi, Meghalaya.

– Correct match: B → 2

3. C. Harbour phase of Indo – US Joint Exercise, Tiger Triumph, 2024

– The Harbour Phase of the Indo-US Joint Exercise Tiger Triumph was conducted at Visakhapatnam from 18th to 25th March 2024.

– Correct match: C → 4

4. D. MILAN, 2024

– The Multilateral Naval Exercise MILAN 2024 was held in Visakhapatnam, India, from 19th to 27th February 2024.

– Correct match: D → 1

The correct codes are: A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1.

Q. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List-I (Joint Exercise) A. India – Uzbekistan Joint Military Exercise, “DUSTLIK” Read More »

Q. Arrange the following schemes launched by the Government of India in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :

Q. Arrange the following schemes launched by the Government of India in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. Integrated Rural Development Programme
2. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
3. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
4. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana

a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 3, 4, 1, 2
c) 2, 3, 4, 1
d) 4, 1, 1, 2

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: a) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation:

1. Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP): This program was introduced in 1978 and implemented in 1980. It is the earliest among the listed schemes.

2. Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY): This scheme was launched in the year 1999-2000. It came much later than IRDP.

3. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA): This act was passed in 2005 and later renamed as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA). It came after SGSY.

4. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY): This scheme was launched in 2014. It is the most recent among the listed schemes.

Correct Answer: a) 1, 2, 3, 4

Q. Arrange the following schemes launched by the Government of India in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below : Read More »