Q. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I (Author) A. Lallanji Gopal B. Habib and Nizami C. K.S. Lal D. Dasharatha Sharma
List-II (Book) 1. A Comprehensive History of India: The Delhi Sultanat 2. The Economic Life of Northern India 3. Early Chauhan Dynasties 4. History of the Khaljis
Codes: a) 2 1 4 3 b) 1 2 3 4 c) 4 3 2 1 d) 3 4 1 2
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024
Correct Answer: (a) 2 1 4 3.
Explanation:
– A. Lallanji Gopal: The Economic Life of Northern India
– B. Habib and Nizami: A Comprehensive History of India: The Delhi Sultanat
Q. Which Amendment Acts deal with local governance institutions in India?
a) 63rd and 64th Amendment Acts b) 86th and 87th Amendment Acts c) 42nd and 43rd Amendment Acts d) 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024
The correct answer is: d) 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts
Explanation:
– 73rd Amendment Act (1992): This amendment introduced Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs), which are decentralized local self-government systems in rural areas. It aimed to empower local rural bodies, ensuring democratic governance and promoting participation from the grassroots level.
– 74th Amendment Act (1992): This amendment focused on Urban Local Bodies (ULBs), such as municipalities. It provided a constitutional framework for the creation, composition, and functioning of these urban local governance institutions, ensuring better urban administration and development.
These two amendments were significant in decentralizing power and promoting local self-governance in both rural and urban areas of India.
Q. With reference to the “National Intellectual Property Rights Policy” consider the following statements:
1. It reiterates India’s commitment to Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS agreement. 2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating Intellectual Property Rights in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only 2 b) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Only 1 d) Both 1 and 2
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024
Correct Answer: d) Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Statement 1: It reiterates India’s commitment to Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS agreement.
– This statement is correct. The National IPR Policy explicitly reaffirms India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) agreement under the World Trade Organization (WTO). The policy ensures that India’s IPR regime is in compliance with international agreements while safeguarding national interests.
Statement 2: Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating Intellectual Property Rights in India.
– This statement is also correct. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), now renamed as the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal agency responsible for formulating and implementing policies related to intellectual property rights in India. It oversees the administration of patents, trademarks, copyrights, and other forms of intellectual property.
Both statements are correct. Hence, the correct answer is d) Both 1 and 2.
Q. Fathima Beevi died recently. Consider the following statements regarding her:
1. She was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India. 2. She served as the Governor of Kerala from 1997–2001. 3. She was the first Muslim woman to enter into higher judiciary.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below. a) 1 and 2 b) 1 and 3 c) Only 1 d) 1, 2 and 3
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024
Correct Answer: b) 1 and 3
Explanation:
1. Statement 1: She was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India.
– This statement is correct. Fathima Beevi was the first woman to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India in 1989. She was also the first woman judge in the higher judiciary in India.
2. Statement 2: She served as the Governor of Kerala from 1997–2001.
– This statement is incorrect. Fathima Beevi did not serve as the Governor of Kerala. She served as the Governor of Tamil Nadu from 1997 to 2001.
3. Statement 3: She was the first Muslim woman to enter into higher judiciary.
– This statement is correct. Fathima Beevi was the first Muslim woman to be appointed to the higher judiciary in India, making her a trailblazer in this regard.
Q. The Concurrent list of the Indian Constitution includes which of the following?
1. Trade and Commerce 2. Adulteration of Goods 3. Succession
Select the correct answer from the codes given below: a) 1 and 3 b) 1, 2 and 3 c) Only 1 d) 2 and 3
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024
Correct Answer: d) 2 and 3.
Explanation:
1. Trade and Commerce:
– Entry 33 of the Concurrent List mentions “Trade and commerce in, and the production, supply, and distribution of” certain goods (e.g., foodstuffs, raw cotton, etc.). – However, general “Trade and Commerce” as a subject is not explicitly listed in the Concurrent List. It is primarily a Union List subject (Entry 41 of the Union List deals with “Trade and commerce with foreign countries”).
– Therefore, Trade and Commerce is not part of the Concurrent List. Note: Offical Answer may differ.
2. Adulteration of Goods:
– Entry 18 of the Concurrent List explicitly mentions “Adulteration of foodstuffs and other goods.”
3. Succession:
– Entry 5 of the Concurrent List includes “Marriage and divorce; infants and minors; adoption; wills, intestacy, and succession.”
Q. Consider the following statements with reference to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities:
1. In the Constitution, there is a provision for the post of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities for every State. 2. A new Article 350 B was added by the 9th Constitution Amendment Act.
Which of the above statements is/are correct? a) Only 2 b) Neither 1 nor 2 c) Only 1 d) Both 1 and 2
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024
Correct Answer: b) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation:
1. Statement 1: In the Constitution, there is a provision for the post of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities for every State.
– This statement is incorrect. The Constitution of India provides for a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities under Article 350B, but it is not for every state. Instead, the Special Officer is appointed at the central level to investigate matters relating to the safeguards provided for linguistic minorities under the Constitution and report to the President of India. The officer’s role is not state-specific but rather national in scope.
2. Statement 2: A new Article 350B was added by the 9th Constitution Amendment Act.
– This statement is also incorrect. Article 350B, which provides for the appointment of a Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities, was added by the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, not the 9th Amendment Act.
Additional Information:
– The Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is tasked with ensuring the implementation of constitutional safeguards for linguistic minorities, such as the right to conserve their language, script, or culture (Article 29) and the right to education in their mother tongue (Article 30).
– The officer submits annual reports to the President, which are then laid before Parliament and sent to the concerned states.
Thus, both statements are incorrect, and the correct answer is b) Neither 1 nor 2.
Codes: a) 4 3 2 1 b) 2 1 4 3 c) 1 2 3 4 d) 1 3 2 4
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024
Correct Answer: b) 2 1 4 3.
Explanation:
1. Vitamin A: Deficiency of Vitamin A causes blindness, particularly night blindness. Hence, Vitamin A matches with 2 (Blindness).
2. Vitamin B: Deficiency of Vitamin B (specifically Vitamin B1 or thiamine) causes beriberi, a disease affecting the nervous system. Hence, Vitamin B matches with 1 (Beriberi).
3. Vitamin C: Deficiency of Vitamin C causes scurvy, which is characterized by bleeding gums and poor wound healing. Hence, Vitamin C matches with 4 (Scurvy).
4. Vitamin D: Deficiency of Vitamin D causes rickets, a condition that leads to weak or soft bones in children. Hence, Vitamin D matches with 3 (Rickets).
Q. Which one of the following statements is not correct about William J. Archbold?
a) He was the Principal of Government College, Dacca. b) He was the Principal of Lahore College, Lahore. c) He was the Principal of MAO College, Aligarh. d) He was the Principal of the Muir Central College, Allahabad.
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024
Correct Answer: b) He was the Principal of Lahore College, Lahore.
Explanation:
William A.J. Archbold served as the Principal of Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental (MAO) College in Aligarh from October 16, 1905, to October 31, 1909.
Q. Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order starting from the earliest:
1. Vellore Mutiny 2. Death of Nana Fadnavis 3. Recall of Wellesley 4. Anglo-Nepalese War
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
a) 2, 3, 1, 4 b) 4, 1, 3, 2 c) 2, 3, 4, 1 d) 3, 1, 2, 4
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024
Correct Answer: a) 2, 3, 1, 4
Explanation:
1. Vellore Mutiny: The Vellore Mutiny occurred on 10 July 1806. It was one of the earliest uprisings against British rule in India, preceding the Revolt of 1857.
2. Death of Nana Fadnavis: Nana Fadnavis, a prominent statesman of the Maratha Empire, died on 13 March 1800.
3. Recall of Wellesley: Lord Wellesley, the Governor-General of India, was recalled to England in 1805 due to criticism of his expansionist policies.
4. Anglo-Nepalese War: The Anglo-Nepalese War, also known as the Gurkha War, took place between 1814 and 1816.
Codes: a) 4 3 1 2 b) 3 4 1 2 c) 2 1 3 4 d) 3 2 1 4
Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024
Correct Answer: a) 4 3 1 2
Explanation:
1. Paika Revolt: This was a rebellion in 1817 in Odisha against British rule. The leader of this revolt was Jagabandhu Bidyadhar Mahapatra. (Match: A → 4)
2. Bareilly Revolt: This revolt occurred during the 1857 uprising, and the leader associated with it was Mufi Muhammad Aiwaz. (Match: B → 3)
3. Malabar Revolt: This was part of the Moplah Rebellion in Kerala (1921), and the leader was Edachena Kungan. (Match: C → 1)
4. Sylhet Revolt: This revolt occurred in the Sylhet region, and the leader was Radhakhan. (Match: D → 2)