Correct Answer: c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

– Assertion (A): The Himalayas are still rising.

This statement is true. The Himalayas are geologically young mountains and are still rising due to tectonic activity.

– Reason (R): The Indian tectonic plate is colliding with the Eurasian plate.

This statement is also true. The Indian plate is moving northward and colliding with the Eurasian plate, causing the crust to buckle and fold, which leads to the uplift of the Himalayas.

– Relationship between (A) and (R):
The collision of the Indian and Eurasian plates is the primary reason for the continuous rise of the Himalayas. This tectonic activity causes the mountains to grow in height over time. Therefore, (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Thus, the correct answer is c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Correct Answer: b) Pin Valley – Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation:

a) Rajaji – Uttarakhand:

This is correctly matched. Rajaji National Park is located in Uttarakhand and is known for its rich biodiversity and wildlife, including elephants and tigers.

b) Pin Valley – Jammu and Kashmir:

This is incorrectly matched. Pin Valley National Park is located in the state of Himachal Pradesh, not Jammu and Kashmir. It is situated in the cold desert region of Spiti Valley and is known for its snow leopards and unique flora and fauna.

c) Bandipur – Karnataka:

This is correctly matched. Bandipur National Park is located in Karnataka and is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It is famous for its tiger population and other wildlife.

d) Simlipal – Odisha:

This is correctly matched. Simlipal National Park is located in Odisha and is a significant tiger reserve. It is also known for its waterfalls and diverse flora and fauna.

Correct Answer: c) Muri – Chhattisgarh

Explanation:

1. Alupuram (Alwaye) – Kerala

– This is correctly matched. The Alupuram plant, located in Alwaye (now Aluva), Kerala, is associated with the production of aluminum. It is one of the older aluminum plants in India.

2. Belagavi – Karnataka

– This is correctly matched. Belagavi (formerly Belgaum) in Karnataka is home to an aluminum plant operated by Hindalco Industries.

3. Muri – Chhattisgarh

– This is incorrectly matched. Muri is located in Jharkhand, not Chhattisgarh. It is known for its alumina refinery operated by Hindalco Industries.

4. Hirakud – Odisha

– This is correctly matched. Hirakud in Odisha is known for its aluminum smelter and power plant operated by Hindalco Industries.

Correct Answer: b) Pycnocline – Sea water density

Explanation:

1. Ecocline – Biodiversity

– This is incorrect. An ecocline refers to a gradual transition or gradient between two ecosystems or communities, often marked by changes in environmental conditions (e.g., moisture, temperature). It is not directly related to biodiversity.

2. Pycnocline – Sea water density

– This is correct. A pycnocline is a layer in a body of water where there is a rapid change in water density with depth. This change in density is typically caused by variations in temperature (thermocline) or salinity (halocline).

3. Thermocline – Air temperature

– This is incorrect. A thermocline refers to a layer in a body of water where there is a rapid change in temperature with depth, not air temperature.

4. Halocline – Sea water temperature

– This is incorrect. A halocline refers to a layer in a body of water where there is a rapid change in salinity with depth, not temperature.

Conclusion: The correct match is b) Pycnocline – Sea water density.

Correct Answer: a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

– Assertion (A): Relative humidity decreases with increasing air temperature.

This statement is true. Relative humidity is the ratio of the actual amount of water vapor in the air to the maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold at a given temperature, expressed as a percentage. As air temperature increases, the air’s capacity to hold water vapor increases, but if the actual amount of water vapor remains constant, the relative humidity decreases.

– Reason (R): Absolute humidity increases with increasing evaporation.

This statement is also true. Absolute humidity refers to the total amount of water vapor present in a given volume of air. When evaporation increases, more water vapor enters the air, leading to an increase in absolute humidity.

– However, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). The decrease in relative humidity with increasing air temperature is due to the air’s increased capacity to hold water vapor, not directly because of evaporation or changes in absolute humidity.

Correct Answer: d) Migration – Ecesis – Reaction – Stabilisation

Explanation:

Biotic succession refers to the natural process by which ecosystems develop and change over time, eventually reaching a stable climax community. The correct sequence of phases in biotic succession is as follows:

1. Migration: This is the initial phase where propagules (seeds, spores, or other reproductive units) of species arrive at a new area through dispersal mechanisms like wind, water, or animals.

2. Ecesis: After migration, the propagules establish themselves in the new environment. This involves germination, growth, and adaptation to the local conditions.

3. Reaction: As the organisms grow and interact with the environment, they modify it (e.g., altering soil composition, light availability, or nutrient cycles). These changes can make the environment more suitable for other species and less suitable for the pioneer species.

4. Stabilisation: This is the final phase where a relatively stable climax community is established. The ecosystem reaches equilibrium, and significant changes in species composition cease.

Thus, the correct sequence is Migration → Ecesis → Reaction → Stabilisation, making option d the correct answer.

Correct Answer: d) None of the above

Explanation:

The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a constitutional body responsible for conducting free and fair elections in India. However, its functions are limited to certain specific elections as per the Constitution and laws.

1. Conduct of elections for the posts of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha:

The Election Commission of India does not conduct elections for these posts. These elections are conducted internally by the members of the respective houses (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha). Hence, this statement is incorrect.

2. Conduct of elections of the Municipal Corporations and Municipalities:

The Election Commission of India is not responsible for conducting elections to Municipal Corporations and Municipalities. These elections are conducted by the State Election Commissions, which are separate bodies established under Article 243K of the Constitution. Hence, this statement is also incorrect.

3. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising out of the above elections:

The Election Commission of India does not have the authority to decide disputes related to elections for the Speaker, Deputy Speaker, Deputy Chairman, or Municipal Corporations and Municipalities. Disputes related to parliamentary or state assembly elections are handled by the judiciary (e.g., High Courts). Hence, this statement is also incorrect.

The correct answer is: b) 1 and 2

Explanation:

An amendment to the Constitution of India is governed by Article 368. According to this article, the process of amending the Constitution can only be initiated in Parliament, specifically in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.

1. Lok Sabha: Yes, an amendment can be initiated in the Lok Sabha. This is one of the two houses of Parliament where a bill for constitutional amendment can be introduced.

2. Rajya Sabha: Yes, an amendment can also be initiated in the Rajya Sabha. Like the Lok Sabha, it is part of Parliament and has the authority to introduce and deliberate on constitutional amendment bills.

3. State Legislatures: No, state legislatures cannot initiate an amendment to the Constitution. However, in certain cases (e.g., amendments affecting federal provisions), ratification by at least half of the state legislatures is required after the amendment is passed by Parliament.

4. President of India: No, the President does not have the power to initiate a constitutional amendment. The President’s role is limited to giving assent to the amendment bill after it has been passed by both houses of Parliament as per the procedure laid out in Article 368.

The correct answer is: a) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: The President shall not be a member of either of the Houses of the Parliament.

– This statement is correct. According to Article 59(1)(a) of the Indian Constitution, the President of India shall not be a member of either House of Parliament or a House of the Legislature of any State. If a person who is a member of any of these bodies is elected as President, they are required to vacate their seat in that body on the date they enter upon their office as President.

2. Statement 2: The Parliament shall consist of the President and both Houses.

– This statement is also correct. As per Article 79 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament of India consists of the President and the two Houses—namely, the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha (House of the People). The President is an integral part of the Parliament, even though they are not a member of either House.

Correct Answer: c) Article 155 – Removal of the Governor

Explanation:

a) Article 153 – This article provides for the office of the Governor in each state. It is correctly matched.

b) Article 154 – This article vests the executive authority of the state in the Governor. It is also correctly matched.

c) Article 155 – This article deals with the appointment of the Governor by the President, not the removal of the Governor. Hence, this is incorrectly matched.

d) Article 156 – This article specifies the term of the Governor, which is five years, and also mentions that the Governor holds office at the pleasure of the President. This is correctly matched.

Thus, the incorrect match is c) Article 155 – Removal of the Governor.