UPPSC Prelims 2024

Q. Which measures are essential to achieve Goal 4 of the Sustainable Development Targets 2030 ?

Q. Which measures are essential to achieve Goal 4 of the Sustainable Development Targets 2030 ?

1. Making education free and compulsory
2. Improving basic school infrastructure and embracing digital transformation
3. Expansion of agricultural programmes
4. Increasing investment in technology

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
c) Only 1
d) 1, 2 and 3

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: a) 1 and 2

Explanation:

Goal 4 of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) focuses on ensuring “inclusive and equitable quality education and promoting lifelong learning opportunities for all.” To achieve this goal, the following measures are essential:

1. Making education free and compulsory:

This is a fundamental step to ensure that all children, regardless of their socio-economic background, have access to education. Free and compulsory education removes financial barriers and ensures inclusivity.

2. Improving basic school infrastructure and embracing digital transformation:

Quality education requires adequate infrastructure such as classrooms, sanitation facilities, and access to technology. Digital transformation is particularly important in modern education to bridge the digital divide and provide access to online learning resources.

3. Expansion of agricultural programmes:

While agricultural programmes are important for food security and rural development, they are not directly related to achieving Goal 4, which is focused on education.

4. Increasing investment in technology:

While technology is important, it is a subset of improving school infrastructure and digital transformation. It is not a standalone measure for achieving Goal 4.

Thus, the correct measures to achieve Goal 4 are 1 and 2, making option a) 1 and 2 the correct answer.

Q. Which measures are essential to achieve Goal 4 of the Sustainable Development Targets 2030 ? Read More »

Assertion (A) : Development is being defined as improving living standards and welfare. Reason (R) : Growth in per capita income is not a sufficient measure of development.

Q. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Development is being defined as improving living standards and welfare.
Reason (R): Growth in per capita income is not a sufficient measure of development.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

– Assertion (A): Development is indeed defined as improving living standards and welfare. This is a widely accepted understanding of development, which goes beyond mere economic growth to include factors like health, education, equality, and overall well-being.

– Reason (R): Growth in per capita income alone is not a sufficient measure of development. While per capita income is an important economic indicator, it does not capture the distribution of income, access to basic services, or quality of life. For example, a country may have high per capita income but still suffer from inequality, poor healthcare, or lack of education.

– Relationship between A and R: The reason (R) explains why development is defined in broader terms (as stated in A). Since per capita income alone cannot fully measure development, the concept of development has been expanded to include improvements in living standards and welfare.

Thus, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) provides the correct explanation for (A).

Assertion (A) : Development is being defined as improving living standards and welfare. Reason (R) : Growth in per capita income is not a sufficient measure of development. Read More »

List-I (Social Security Programme) A. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana B. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana C. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana D. Atal Pension Yojana List-II (Beneficiary’s Contribution) 1. Beneficiary’s choice 2. ₹ 55 – ₹ 400 per month 3. ₹ 436 per year 4. ₹ 20 per year

Q. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:


List-I (Social Security Programme)
A. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana
B. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana
C. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana
D. Atal Pension Yojana

List-II (Beneficiary’s Contribution)
1. Beneficiary’s choice
2. ₹ 55 – ₹ 400 per month
3. ₹ 436 per year
4. ₹ 20 per year

Codes:
a) 2 4 3 1
b) 4 2 1 3
c) 1 3 2 4
d) 3 1 4 2

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: a) 2 4 3 1.

Explanation:

A. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana (PMSYM):

This scheme is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme for unorganized workers. The contribution varies between ₹55 to ₹200 per month, depending on the entry age of the beneficiary.

B. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY):

This is a life insurance scheme offering coverage for death due to any cause. The premium is ₹436 per year.

C. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY):

This scheme provides accident insurance coverage. The premium is ₹20 per year.

D. Atal Pension Yojana (APY):

APY is a pension scheme targeted at unorganized sector workers. The contribution amount varies based on the desired pension amount at retirement and the age at which the subscriber joins the scheme. Therefore, the contribution is based on the beneficiary’s choice.

Therefore, the correct code is: a) 2 4 3 1.

List-I (Social Security Programme) A. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana B. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana C. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana D. Atal Pension Yojana List-II (Beneficiary’s Contribution) 1. Beneficiary’s choice 2. ₹ 55 – ₹ 400 per month 3. ₹ 436 per year 4. ₹ 20 per year Read More »

Q. According to the Economic Survey, 2022 – 23, what fiscal policy response did the Government of India undertake in response to the aggravated global supply situation ?

Q. According to the Economic Survey, 2022 – 23, what fiscal policy response did the Government of India undertake in response to the aggravated global supply situation ?

1. Decreasing food and fertiliser subsidies
2. Increasing taxes on fuel and imported products
3. Reducing taxes on fuel and certain imported products

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

a) Only 3
b) Only 1
c) Only 2
d) None of the above

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: a) Only 3

Explanation:

1. Decreasing food and fertiliser subsidies (Option 1):

This is incorrect. The Economic Survey mentions that the government continued to provide food and fertiliser subsidies to support vulnerable sections of society. In fact, free food grains were distributed to about 81.4 crore beneficiaries under the National Food Security Act, and fertiliser subsidies were maintained to ensure affordability for farmers.

2. Increasing taxes on fuel and imported products (Option 2):

This is also incorrect. The government did not increase taxes on fuel or imported products. Instead, it reduced taxes to ease inflationary pressures.

3. Reducing taxes on fuel and certain imported products (Option 3):

This is correct. The government adopted a multi-pronged approach to address inflation and supply chain disruptions. Measures included:

– Phase-wise reduction in export duty on petrol and diesel.

– Reduction in import duties on major inputs (e.g., crude and refined palm oil, crude soybean oil, crude sunflower oil).

– Waiving customs duty on cotton imports.

– Prohibition on the export of wheat products and imposition of export duties on rice.

These measures were aimed at controlling inflation and ensuring the availability of essential goods in the domestic market.

Conclusion: The correct fiscal policy response was reducing taxes on fuel and certain imported products, making a) Only 3 the correct answer.

Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1894929

Q. According to the Economic Survey, 2022 – 23, what fiscal policy response did the Government of India undertake in response to the aggravated global supply situation ? Read More »

Q. Malthus argued that the population grows in a progression, while agricultural production/food supply grows in a progression.

Q. Malthus argued that the population grows in a _____ progression, while agricultural production/food supply grows in a ____ progression.

 
From the following options, choose the correct answer to fill in the blanks:

a) Linear, Exponential
b) Exponential, Linear
c) Arithmetic, Geometric
d) Geometric, Arithmetic

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: d) Geometric, Arithmetic

Explanation:

Thomas Malthus, in his famous work “An Essay on the Principle of Population” (1798), argued that population growth and food supply grow at different rates, leading to potential issues of scarcity and famine. Specifically:

1. Population Growth: Malthus claimed that population grows in a geometric progression (e.g., 2, 4, 8, 16, etc.), meaning it increases exponentially over time if unchecked.

2. Food Supply Growth: On the other hand, he argued that agricultural production or food supply grows in an arithmetic progression (e.g., 1, 2, 3, 4, etc.), meaning it increases linearly over time.

This mismatch between the rapid growth of population and the slower growth of food supply, according to Malthus, would lead to overpopulation and resource scarcity unless checked by “positive checks” (like famine, disease, and war) or “preventive checks” (like moral restraint and delayed marriage).

Thus, the correct answer is d) Geometric, Arithmetic.

Q. Malthus argued that the population grows in a progression, while agricultural production/food supply grows in a progression. Read More »

Q. Arrange the following schemes launched by the Government of India in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below: 1. Swachh Bharat Mission 2. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 3. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana 4. Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra Scheme

Q. Arrange the following schemes launched by the Government of India in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. Swachh Bharat Mission
2. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana
3. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana
4. Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra Scheme

a) 2, 1, 4, 3
b) 4, 2, 1, 3
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 3, 1, 2, 4

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: c) 1, 2, 3, 4.

Explanation:

The correct chronological order of the schemes launched by the Government of India is:

1. Swachh Bharat Mission – Launched on October 2, 2014.

2. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana – Launched on July 15, 2015.

3. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana – Launched on December 16, 2016.

4. Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra Scheme – Launched in November 2017.

The correct answer is: c) 1, 2, 3, 4.

Q. Arrange the following schemes launched by the Government of India in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below: 1. Swachh Bharat Mission 2. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 3. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana 4. Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra Scheme Read More »

Q. Which indicators are used in Human Development Index (HDI) ?

Q. Which indicators are used in Human Development Index (HDI)?

1. Income level
2. Education
3. Condition of environment
4. Life expectancy

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
a) Only 1, 2 and 3
b) Only 1 and 4
c) Only 1, 2 and 4
d) Only 1 and 2

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

The correct answer is: c) Only 1, 2 and 4

Explanation:

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index used to measure and rank countries based on human development. It focuses on three key dimensions:

1. Income Level: This is measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita, adjusted for purchasing power parity (PPP). It reflects the standard of living in a country.

2. Education: This is measured by two indicators:

– Mean years of schooling for adults aged 25 years or older.

– Expected years of schooling for children entering school.

3. Life Expectancy: This reflects the health dimension and measures the average number of years a person is expected to live at birth.

The condition of the environment is not included as a direct indicator in the HDI. While environmental factors are important for overall well-being, they are not part of the HDI calculation.

Thus, the correct combination of indicators is 1 (Income level), 2 (Education), and 4 (Life expectancy).

Q. Which indicators are used in Human Development Index (HDI) ? Read More »

Q. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List-I (Yojana Name) A. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Gramin B. Jai Jeevan Mission C. Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin D. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana List-II (Date of Launch) 1. May, 2016 2. October, 2014 3. August, 2019 4. November, 2016

Q. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Yojana Name) A. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Gramin B. Jal Jeevan Mission C. Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin D. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana

List-II (Date of Launch) 1. May, 2016 2. October, 2014 3. August, 2019 4. November, 2016

Codes:
a) 4 3 1 2
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 1 2 3 4
d) 3 4 1 2

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: b) 4 3 2 1

Explanation:

1. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Gramin (PMAY-G): Launched in November 2016 .

2. Jal Jeevan Mission: Launched on August 15, 2019 .

3. Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin: Launched in October 2014 .

4. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana: Launched in May 2016 .

Thus, the correct answer is option b) 4 3 2 1.

Q. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists : List-I (Yojana Name) A. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana Gramin B. Jai Jeevan Mission C. Swachh Bharat Mission Gramin D. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana List-II (Date of Launch) 1. May, 2016 2. October, 2014 3. August, 2019 4. November, 2016 Read More »

Q. With reference to “FLY91” which of the following statements is/are correct ?

Q. With reference to “FLY91,” which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a newly launched airline in India.
2. Its inaugural flight took off from Manohar International Airport on 18th March, 2024.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

a) Only 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Only 1
d) Both 1 and 2

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Just Udo Aviation Private Limited, operating under the brand name Fly91 (stylized as FLY91), is a regional low-cost airline based in Ribandar, Goa, India. The airline’s operations are centered at Manohar International Airport in Mopa, located in North Goa district. With a fleet of three ATR-72 aircraft, Fly91 connects tier-2 and tier-3 cities across India. Established in January 2023 by former Kingfisher Airlines veterans Harsha Raghavan and Manoj Chacko, the airline commenced commercial flights on 18 March 2024, serving destinations such as Sindhudurg, Bangalore, and Hyderabad from its Goa hub. From April 2024, it expanded its network to include Lakshadweep, Jalgaon, and other regional cities.

Source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fly91

Q. With reference to “FLY91” which of the following statements is/are correct ? Read More »

Q. With reference to “Guidelines for Elimination of Corporal Punishment” (GECP), which of the following statements is/are correct ?

Q. With reference to “Guidelines for Elimination of Corporal Punishment” (GECP), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The Tamil Nadu School Education Department issued these guidelines on 26th April, 2024.
2. These guidelines are focused on safeguarding the physical and mental well-being of students.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
a) Only 2
b) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Only 1
d) Both 1 and 2

Question from UPPSC Prelims 2024

Correct Answer: d) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

The Tamil Nadu School Education Department issued the “Guidelines for Elimination of Corporal Punishment” (GECP) on April 26, 2024.

These guidelines aim to safeguard the physical and mental well-being of students by addressing various forms of harassment in schools.

The GECP emphasizes the prohibition of corporal punishment, aligning with Section 17 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which explicitly bans physical and mental harassment of children in educational institutions.

Q. With reference to “Guidelines for Elimination of Corporal Punishment” (GECP), which of the following statements is/are correct ? Read More »