OPSC OCS 2024

Q. Consider the following statements: (1) Meteorological Drought is based on the impact of rainfall deficits on the water supply.

Q. Consider the following statements:

(1) Meteorological Drought is based on the impact of rainfall deficits on the water supply.
(2) Socioeconomic Drought refers to the impact of drought conditions on supply and demand of economic goods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question from Odisha OCS Paper 1 2024

The correct answer is: b) 2 only.

Explanation:

Statement 1: “Meteorological Drought is based on the impact of rainfall deficits on the water supply.”

This statement is incorrect. Meteorological drought refers to a situation where there is a significant deficiency in precipitation (rainfall) over a specific period of time, compared to the average for that region. It is not directly based on the impact of rainfall deficits on water supply but rather on the deviation from normal precipitation levels.

Statement 2: “Socioeconomic Drought refers to the impact of drought conditions on supply and demand of economic goods.”

This statement is correct. Socioeconomic drought occurs when the water shortage caused by drought conditions affects the production and availability of goods and services, leading to an imbalance in supply and demand. For example, reduced agricultural output due to drought can lead to higher food prices, impacting the economy and society.

Thus, only statement 2 is correct.

Q. Consider the following statements: (1) Meteorological Drought is based on the impact of rainfall deficits on the water supply. Read More »

Q. Which of the following are primary pollutants? (1) Carbon monoxide (CO) (2) Sulphur oxides (SO2) (3) Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) (4) Nitric Oxide (NO) (5) CFC’s (6) Radioactive pollutants.

Q. Which of the following are primary pollutants?

(1) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(2) Sulphur oxides (SO2)
(3) Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs)
(4) Nitric Oxide (NO)
(5) CFC’s
(6) Radioactive pollutants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below
a) 1, 2, 3 and 6 only
b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
c) 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Question from Odisha OCS Paper 1 2024

The correct answer is Option D: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.

Explanation:

Primary pollutants are those pollutants that are directly emitted into the atmosphere from a source, such as vehicles, industries, or natural processes. These pollutants are harmful in their original form and do not require chemical transformation to become hazardous. Let us analyze each option:

1) Carbon monoxide (CO): It is a primary pollutant emitted directly from sources like vehicle exhaust, industrial processes, and incomplete combustion of fossil fuels.

2) Sulphur oxides (SO2): Sulphur dioxide is a primary pollutant released directly into the atmosphere from burning fossil fuels, volcanic eruptions, and industrial activities.

3) Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs): These are primary pollutants emitted directly from sources like paints, solvents, vehicle emissions, and industrial processes.

4) Nitric Oxide (NO): It is a primary pollutant released directly from combustion processes, such as those in vehicles and power plants.

5) CFCs (Chlorofluorocarbons): These are primary pollutants released directly from sources like refrigerants, aerosol sprays, and industrial processes.

6) Radioactive pollutants: These are primary pollutants emitted directly from sources like nuclear power plants, mining of radioactive materials, and natural radioactive decay.

Since all the listed pollutants are directly emitted into the atmosphere and qualify as primary pollutants, the correct answer is Option D: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.

Q. Which of the following are primary pollutants? (1) Carbon monoxide (CO) (2) Sulphur oxides (SO2) (3) Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) (4) Nitric Oxide (NO) (5) CFC’s (6) Radioactive pollutants. Read More »

Q. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India refers to protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife?

Q. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India refers to protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife?

a) 39A
b) 43A
c) 48A
d) 51A

Question from Odisha OCS Paper 1 2024

The correct answer is: c) 48A

Explanation: Article 48A of the Constitution of India falls under the Directive Principles of State Policy. It specifically refers to the protection and improvement of the environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife. It states that the State shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country. This provision was added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, highlighting the importance of environmental conservation as a responsibility of the State.

Q. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India refers to protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife? Read More »

Q. Which climatic phenomenon is characterized by cooler than normal sea surface temperatures in the central Pacific Ocean?

Q. Which climatic phenomenon is characterized by cooler than normal sea surface temperatures in the central Pacific Ocean?

a) La Nina
b) El Nino
c) Monsoon
d) Tornado

Question from Odisha OCS Paper 1 2024

The correct answer is: a) La Nina

Explanation: La Nina is a climatic phenomenon characterized by cooler than normal sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern Pacific Ocean, near the equator. It is part of the El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) cycle, which includes both La Nina (cooling phase) and El Nino (warming phase). La Nina typically influences global weather patterns, often leading to increased rainfall in some regions and droughts in others.

The other options do not describe this specific phenomenon. El Nino refers to warmer sea surface temperatures, Monsoon is a seasonal wind pattern, and Tornado is a localized weather event involving rotating winds.

Q. Which climatic phenomenon is characterized by cooler than normal sea surface temperatures in the central Pacific Ocean? Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements regarding an aquatic ecosystem: (1) The shallow water zone around the edge of the lake is the littoral zone.

Q. Consider the following statements regarding an aquatic ecosystem:

(1) The shallow water zone around the edge of the lake is the littoral zone.
(2) Limnetic zone is the open zone where phytoplankton grows in abundance.
(3) Profundal zone is the dark zone where the light cannot reach.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Question from Odisha OCS Paper 1 2024

The correct answer is: d) 1, 2 and 3.

Explanation:

1. The littoral zone is indeed the shallow water zone around the edge of a lake. It is the area where sunlight penetrates to the bottom, allowing aquatic plants to grow. This makes statement 1 correct.

2. The limnetic zone refers to the open water zone in a lake, away from the shore, where sunlight can penetrate. This zone supports the growth of phytoplankton, which are microscopic plants that perform photosynthesis. This makes statement 2 correct.

3. The profundal zone is the deep, dark zone of a lake where sunlight cannot reach. As a result, photosynthesis does not occur here, and it is typically inhabited by organisms adapted to low light and oxygen levels. This makes statement 3 correct.

Since all three statements are correct, the correct answer is option d) 1, 2 and 3.

Q. Consider the following statements regarding an aquatic ecosystem: (1) The shallow water zone around the edge of the lake is the littoral zone. Read More »

Q. Consider the following statement(s) related to the reasons for low sex ratio. I. High maternal mortality. II. Sex selective female abortions. III. Change in sex ratio at birth.

Q. Consider the following statement(s) related to the reasons for low sex ratio.

I. High maternal mortality.
II. Sex selective female abortions.
III. Change in sex ratio at birth.

Code:

a) Only I
b) I & II
c) II & III
d) I, II & III

Question from Odisha OCS Paper 1 2024

Correct Answer: b) I & II

Explanation: 

I. High maternal mortality – TRUE
– This directly reduces the number of females in the population
– Maternal deaths decrease the adult female population, affecting the overall sex ratio

II. Sex selective female abortions – TRUE
– This directly impacts sex ratio by preventing female births
– Common in societies with son preference

III. Change in sex ratio at birth – FALSE
– Natural sex ratio at birth is relatively constant (approximately 105 males to 100 females)
– This biological ratio is fairly stable and isn’t a reason for low sex ratio
– What affects sex ratio are human interventions (like sex-selective abortions) rather than natural changes in birth sex ratio

Therefore, only statements I and II are correct reasons for low sex ratio.

Q. Consider the following statement(s) related to the reasons for low sex ratio. I. High maternal mortality. II. Sex selective female abortions. III. Change in sex ratio at birth. Read More »

Q. Which year is known as the year of demographic divide? a) 1921 b) 1920 c) 1919 d) 1918

Q. Which year is known as the year of demographic divide?

a) 1921
b) 1920
c) 1919
d) 1918

Question from Odisha OCS Paper 1 2024

The correct answer is: a) 1921.

Explanation: The year 1921 is referred to as the “Year of Demographic Divide” in India. This is because it marked a significant turning point in the population trends of the country. Before 1921, India’s population was fluctuating due to high birth rates and high death rates, which often balanced each other out. However, starting from 1921, the death rate began to decline due to improvements in healthcare, sanitation, and living conditions, while the birth rate remained high. This led to a steady increase in population. Hence, 1921 is considered the year when the demographic transition began in India.

Q. Which year is known as the year of demographic divide? a) 1921 b) 1920 c) 1919 d) 1918 Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements about Atal Bhujal Yojana.

Q. Consider the following statements about Atal Bhujal Yojana.

(1) It is conceived to arrest the rampant overuse of groundwater in India.
(2) It is supported by the World Bank.
(3) It is a sub-scheme under National Groundwater Management Improvement Scheme (NGMIS).

Select the correct statements

a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 3
c) 1 and 2
d) All of the above

Question from Odisha OCS Paper 1 2024

The correct answer is: c) 1 and 2.

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: “It is conceived to arrest the rampant overuse of groundwater in India.”
This statement is correct. Atal Bhujal Yojana (ABY) is designed to address the critical issue of groundwater depletion and promote sustainable groundwater management in India. It aims to improve groundwater resources through community participation and demand-side interventions.

2. Statement 2: “It is supported by the World Bank.”
This statement is also correct. The Atal Bhujal Yojana is a central sector scheme that is partially funded by the World Bank. The World Bank provides financial assistance to support the implementation of this scheme.

3. Statement 3: “It is a sub-scheme under National Groundwater Management Improvement Scheme (NGMIS).”
This statement is incorrect. Atal Bhujal Yojana is an independent scheme and not a sub-scheme under the National Groundwater Management Improvement Scheme (NGMIS). There is no such linkage between the two.

Thus, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making option c) the right answer.

Q. Consider the following statements about Atal Bhujal Yojana. Read More »

Q. Which of the following three states in India are considered the poorest?

Q. Which of the following three states in India are considered the poorest?

a) Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, Haryana
b) Jharkhand, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh
c) Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar
d) Madhya Pradesh, Haryana, Jharkhand

Question from Odisha OCS Paper 1 2024

Correct answer is Option B: Jharkhand, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh.

Explanation: Bihar, Jharkhand, and Uttar Pradesh are often considered among the poorest states in India based on various socio-economic indicators such as per capita income, poverty rate, literacy levels, and access to basic services. These states face challenges like high population density, lack of industrial development, and limited infrastructure, which contribute to their economic struggles. While other states mentioned in the options may also have poverty issues, these three states consistently rank at the bottom in terms of overall development and poverty alleviation.

Q. Which of the following three states in India are considered the poorest? Read More »

Q. In India, which of the following determines the wage policy? a) Productivity b) Cost of Living c) Standard of Living d) None of these

Q. In India, which of the following determines the wage policy?

a) Productivity
b) Cost of Living
c) Standard of Living
d) None of these

Question from Odisha OCS Paper 1 2024

The correct answer is: b) Cost of Living.

Explanation: In India, the wage policy is primarily determined by the cost of living. This means that wages are set based on the expenses required to meet basic needs such as food, housing, clothing, healthcare, and education. The cost of living serves as a benchmark to ensure that workers can maintain a minimum standard of living. While factors like productivity and standard of living may influence wage considerations, the cost of living is the most significant determinant in formulating wage policies in India.

Q. In India, which of the following determines the wage policy? a) Productivity b) Cost of Living c) Standard of Living d) None of these Read More »