CSAT 2020

Q. The average age of a teacher and three students is 20 years. If all the three students are of same age and the difference between the age of the teacher and each student is 20 years, then what is the age of the teacher?

Q. The average age of a teacher and three students is 20 years. If all the three students are of same age and the difference between the age of the teacher and each student is 20 years, then what is the age of the teacher?

(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 45 years
Correct Answer: (c) 35 years

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper

Explanation :

Average age of a teacher and 3 students is 20

Given information:
– Average age of teacher and 3 students = 20 years
– All students are of same age
– Difference between teacher’s age and each student’s age = 20 years

Solution:
1. Sum of ages = Average age × Number of people
= 20 × 4 = 80 years

2. Let student’s age = x
Then, teacher’s age = x + 20

3. Equation:
3x + (x + 20) = 80
4x + 20 = 80
4x = 60
x = 15

Therefore:
– Each student’s age = 15 years
– Teacher’s age = 15 + 20 = 35 years

Q. The average age of a teacher and three students is 20 years. If all the three students are of same age and the difference between the age of the teacher and each student is 20 years, then what is the age of the teacher? Read More »

Q. The average score of a batsman after his 50th innings was 46.4. After 60th innings, his average Score increases by 2.6. What was his average score in the last ten innings?

Q. The average score of a batsman after his 50th innings was 46.4. After 60th innings, his average Score increases by 2.6. What was his average score in the last ten innings?

(a) 122
(b) 91
(c) 62
(d) 49
Correct Answer: (c) 62

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

The average score of a batsman ?

The batsman’s performance analysis:

After 50 innings:
– Average score = 46.4
– Total score = 50 × 46.4 = 2320 runs

After 60 innings:
– Average score increased to 49
– Total score = 60 × 49 = 2940 runs

Last 10 innings analysis:
1. Total runs in last 10 innings = Total after 60 innings – Total after 50 innings
= 2940 – 2320 = 620 runs

2. Average score in last 10 innings = Total runs in last 10 innings ÷ Number of innings
= 620 ÷ 10 = 62 runs

Therefore, the batsman’s average score in his last 10 innings was 62 runs.

Q. The average score of a batsman after his 50th innings was 46.4. After 60th innings, his average Score increases by 2.6. What was his average score in the last ten innings? Read More »

Q. How many different 5-letter words (with or without meaning) can be constructed using all the letters of the word ‘DELHI’ so that each word has to start with D and end with I?

Q. How many different 5-letter words (with or without meaning) can be constructed using all the letters of the word ‘DELHI’ so that each word has to start with D and end with I?

(a) 24
(b) 18
(c) 12
(d) 6
Correct Answer: (d) 6

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper

How many different 5 letter words from DELHI ?

Solution:
1. Since D and I are fixed at the start and end positions, we only need to arrange the remaining three letters (E, L, H) in the middle positions.

2. Formula for arranging n distinct objects = n!
In this case, n = 3 (for letters E, L, H)

3. Calculation:
3! = 3 × 2 × 1 = 6

Therefore, there are 6 different possible arrangements.

Possible words:
– DELHI
– DEHLI
– DHELII
– DHELI
– DLHEI
– DLEHI

Q. How many different 5-letter words (with or without meaning) can be constructed using all the letters of the word ‘DELHI’ so that each word has to start with D and end with I? Read More »

Q. How many different sums can be formed with the denominations Rs. 50, Rs. 100, Rs. 200, Rs. 500 and Rs. 2,000 taking at least three denominations at a time? 

Q. How many different sums can be formed with the denominations Rs. 50, Rs. 100, Rs. 200, Rs. 500 and Rs. 2,000 taking at least three denominations at a time?

(a) 16
(b) 15
(c) 14
(d) 10
Correct Answer: (a) 16

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper

Explanation :

Different sums that can be formed with different denominations

There are five denominations in total and we need to choose at least three of them to form a sum. We can use the formula for combinations to calculate the number of ways to choose k items from n items:

Formula: C(n,k) = n! / (k!(n-k)!)
where n is the total number of items and k is the number of items being chosen.

Calculations:
1. Choosing three denominations from five:
C(5,3) = 5! / (3!(5-3)!) = 10

2. Choosing four denominations from five:
C(5,4) = 5! / (4!(5-4)!) = 5

3. Choosing all five denominations:
Only one way possible = 1

Total number of different sums = 10 + 5 + 1 = 16

Q. How many different sums can be formed with the denominations Rs. 50, Rs. 100, Rs. 200, Rs. 500 and Rs. 2,000 taking at least three denominations at a time?  Read More »

Q. For what value of it, the sum of digits in the number (10^n + 1) is 2? 

Q. For what value of it, the sum of digits in the number (10^n + 1) is 2?

(a) For n= 0 only
(b) For any whole number n
(c) For any positive integer n only
(d) For any real number n
Correct Answer: (b) For any whole number n

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper

Explanation :

For what value of n the sum of digits in the number (10^n+1) is 2 ?

Let’s solve step by step.

1) The question asks for what value(s) of n, sum of digits in (10^n + 1) is 2.

2) Testing values systematically:

For n = 0:
10^0 + 1 = 1 + 1 = 2
Sum of digits = 2

For n = 1:
10^1 + 1 = 10 + 1 = 11
Sum of digits = 1 + 1 = 2

For n = 2:
10^2 + 1 = 100 + 1 = 101
Sum of digits = 1 + 0 + 1 = 2

For n = 3:
10^3 + 1 = 1000 + 1 = 1001
Sum of digits = 1 + 0 + 0 + 1 = 2

3) Key observations:
– For n = 0, sum is 2
– For positive integers, number is always in form 1(n zeros)1, so sum is always 2
– For negative integers, not applicable
– For non-integer values, not applicable

4) Checking options:
(a) For n = 0 only – False as works for other values too
(b) For any whole number n – True as works for n = 0 and all positive integers
(c) For any positive integer n only – False as also works for n = 0
(d) For any real number n – False as not applicable for non-integers

The answer is (b).

Note: Whole numbers are non-negative integers, including zero (0, 1, 2, 3, …). They represent whole things without fractions or decimals. Real numbers include all the numbers on the number line: rational numbers (fractions, integers) and irrational numbers (numbers that cannot be expressed as fractions, like √2). They encompass all possible magnitudes and their opposites, describing quantities in the real world.

Q. For what value of it, the sum of digits in the number (10^n + 1) is 2?  Read More »

Q. Let p, q, r and s be natural numbers such that p – 2016 = q + 2017 = r-2018 = s + 2019 

Q. Let p, q, r and s be natural numbers such that p – 2016 = q + 2017 = r-2018 = s + 2019

which one of the following is the largest natural number?
(a) P
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) S
Correct Answer: (c) R

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper

Explanation :

p-2016=q+2017=r-2018=s+2019

Let’s solve this step by step:

1) From the given equation:
p – 2016 = q + 2017 = r – 2018 = s + 2019

Let this common value be k. Then:

2) The equations can be written as:
p – 2016 = k
q + 2017 = k
r – 2018 = k
s + 2019 = k

3) Solving for each variable:
p = k + 2016
q = k – 2017
r = k + 2018
s = k – 2019

4) Comparing these expressions:
p = k + 2016
q = k – 2017 (less than p)
r = k + 2018 (larger than p)
s = k – 2019 (less than q)

5) Arranging in descending order:
r = k + 2018
p = k + 2016
q = k – 2017
s = k – 2019

For any value of k, r will be the largest as it has the largest constant (2018) being added to k.

Therefore, r is the largest number. The answer is (c) R.

Q. Let p, q, r and s be natural numbers such that p – 2016 = q + 2017 = r-2018 = s + 2019  Read More »

Q. In Part III of the constitution which assures people certain fundamental rights,

Q. In Part III of the constitution which assures people certain fundamental rights,

Article 25 proclaims that “”all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion””. What people fail to notice is that this Proclamation is prefixed with the words “subject to public order, morality, health and to the other provisions of this Part””, Which set conditions precedent for the legal protection of religious practices of any Community.
The closing words of this prefatory rider in Article 25 virtually constitute a subordination clause placing other fundamental rights mentioned in Part III over and above the right to religious freedom. Among those other fundamental rights is the rights to equality before law and equal protection of laws-assured at the outset and elaborated in later articles to mean, inter alia, that the State shall not deny equal protection of laws to any person or group of persons on the basis of religion alone.

Q1. What is the most logical inference from the above passage?
(a) State shall not interfere with the religious affairs of the Citizens.
(b) Religious freedom under the Constitution is open to State intervention
(c) Religious freedom of the citizens is not covered under fundamental rights.
(d) Religious practices of any Community are immune to State laws.
Correct Answer: (b) Religious freedom under the Constitution is open to State intervention

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

The passage explains that Article 25 of the Indian Constitution provides for the freedom of conscience and the right to practice, profess, and propagate religion. However, this right is subject to public order, morality, health, and other provisions of Part III of the Constitution, which means that the State has the power to intervene in religious affairs if they threaten public order or morality.

Moreover, the passage points out that the rights to equality before the law and equal protection of laws, which are also fundamental rights guaranteed by the Constitution, take precedence over the right to religious freedom. This means that if any religious practice or belief is in conflict with the principle of equality before law, the State has the power to restrict or prohibit it.

Therefore, the most logical inference from the passage is that religious freedom under the Constitution is open to State intervention, and the State can regulate or restrict religious practices that are deemed to be a threat to public order, morality, health, or the rights of other citizens.

Q. In Part III of the constitution which assures people certain fundamental rights, Read More »

Q. Many people understand the connection n solid waste management and health in terms of the consequences of unattended heaps of garbage which become home for flies and other Vermin.

Q. Many people understand the connection n solid waste management and health in terms of the consequences of unattended heaps of garbage which become home for flies and other Vermin.

However, there is another aspect that is not well- understood, that is, what happens when unscientific solid waste management combines with poor drainage and dumping of untreated sewage into drains which are meant to carry storm water during rains. The result is choked drains which are full of stagnant water breeding mosquitoes, resulting in the spread of water- borne diseases.

Q1. In the context of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message of the passage?
(a) In India, the drainage networks are not separate for sewerage and storm water.
(b) Urban local bodies do not have enough resources and legislative authority to deal with the problems or waste management.
(c) Solid be waste management should integrated with the maintenance of drainage and sewerage networks.
(d) Bad management of solid waste and sewerage systems by our municipalities is the reason for drinking water shortages in our cities.
Correct Answer: (c) Solid be waste management should integrated with the maintenance of drainage and sewerage networks.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

The critical message of the passage is that the combination of unscientific solid waste management, poor drainage, and dumping of untreated sewage can lead to the spread of water-borne diseases. Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Solid waste management should be integrated with the maintenance of drainage and sewerage networks, as this reflects the need for a comprehensive approach to managing waste, drainage, and sewage to prevent the spread of water-borne diseases. The other options are not directly related to the message of the passage. Option (a) is not mentioned in the passage, option (b) focuses on the resources and legislative authority of urban local bodies rather than the need for integrated management, and option (d) mentions drinking water shortages, which is not directly related to the issue of solid waste management and its impact on health.

Q. Many people understand the connection n solid waste management and health in terms of the consequences of unattended heaps of garbage which become home for flies and other Vermin. Read More »

Q. Genome editing is different from genome modification.

Q. Genome editing is different from genome modification.

Genome editing typically involves finding the part of a plant genome that could be changed to render it less vulnerable to disease, or resistant to certain herbicides, or to increase yields. Researchers use ‘molecular scissors’ to dissect the genome and repair it, Which is a process that occurs naturally when plants are under attack from diseases and can throw up new mutations that enable the plant to survive future attacks. This evolutionary process can effectively be speeded up now that it is possible to examine plant genomes in detail in laboratories, and create mechanisms through which the relevant genes can be altered very precisely.

Q1. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Genome editing does not require the transfer of genes from one plant to another.
2. Through genome editing, the chosen genes can be altered precisely in a manner akin to the natural process that helps plants to adapt to the environmental factors.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

The passage supports both assumptions. It explicitly mentions that researchers use “molecular scissors” to dissect the genome and repair it, which implies that there is no transfer of genes from one plant to another (assumption 1). The passage also mentions that the natural process of creating mutations that enable plants to survive future attacks can effectively be sped up through genome editing, which implies that the chosen genes can be altered precisely in a manner akin to the natural process (assumption 2). Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Both 1 and 2.

Q. Genome editing is different from genome modification. Read More »

Q. India has tremendous potential for solar energy. We all realize that we have to stop burning fossil fuels to meet our energy needs.

Q. India has tremendous potential for solar energy. We all realize that we have to stop burning fossil fuels to meet our energy needs.

But certain renewable resources are still going through their cost Curves and learning curves to get the required amount of output. The Indian Government has strongly committed to its targets of reducing emissions by 33 percent by 2030, and towards this it has initiated a strong push towards a gas-based economy and has also invested heavily in renewable energy. However, business houses are wary of investing too heavily in renewable energy at a time when the technology is not yet ready.

Q1. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
(a) India’s commitment to reduce emissions by 33% is unlikely to be achieved.
(b) India should import gas rather than invest in renewable resources.
(c) Getting renewable resources to market too soon may be costly.
(d) India should put in more efforts in the exploration of natural gas.
Correct Answer: (c) Getting renewable resources to market too soon may be costly.

Q2. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Governments often provide inefficient and costly subsidies for technologies that may not be ready in the near future.
2. India’s commitment of reducing emissions by 33% by 2030 shall be on the basis of gas- based economy.
Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

Answer 1 – The most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage is that getting renewable resources to market too soon may be costly, as mentioned in the passage: “However, business houses are wary of investing too heavily in renewable energy at a time when the technology is not yet ready.” Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer. The passage does not provide evidence to support options (a), (b), or (d). The passage mentions that India has initiated a strong push towards a gas-based economy and has invested heavily in renewable energy, which suggests that option (d) is not the correct answer.

Answer 2 – Statement 1 can be assumed from the last sentence that subsidies provided are not enough and technology is not mature enough.
Statement 2 is not correct because we cannot conclude/assume that reduction in emission shall be achieved on the basis of a gas-based economy.

Q. India has tremendous potential for solar energy. We all realize that we have to stop burning fossil fuels to meet our energy needs. Read More »