Explanation : 

Rocks, Clay, Chalk

Statement I is correct. Chalk is indeed known as a highly permeable rock, while clay is considered relatively impermeable or least permeable.

Statement II is correct. Chalk is porous, meaning it contains numerous tiny spaces or pores within its structure. Due to this porosity, chalk can absorb and allow water to pass through it, making it permeable.

Statement III is incorrect. Clay, although impermeable or least permeable, is actually porous. Clay has very fine pores, but due to their extremely small size and the nature of clay particles, water cannot easily pass through. Thus, clay is porous but impermeable because the pores are too small to allow water to flow freely.

Therefore, Statement II correctly explains Statement I, while Statement III is incorrect. Hence, option (c) is the correct choice.

Explanation : 

Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Isotherms are lines on a map that connect points of equal temperature. During January, it is winter in the Northern Hemisphere. Land cools down more rapidly and to a greater degree than water during winter. As a result, landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere become significantly colder than the oceans. This sharp decrease in temperature over land causes isotherms to bend sharply towards the south (equatorward) over continents, especially pronounced in areas like Europe and the Siberian plain.

Oceans have a higher heat capacity than land, meaning they absorb and release heat more slowly. Consequently, oceans retain heat longer and are relatively warmer than landmasses during winter. Warm ocean currents, such as the Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift, further contribute to making the Northern Atlantic Ocean warmer, causing isotherms to bend towards the north (poleward) over the oceans.

Therefore, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Land heats up and cools down more rapidly and to a greater degree than water. In January, which is winter in the Northern Hemisphere, landmasses cool down significantly, becoming much colder than the adjacent oceans. The air temperature over land fluctuates more because land changes its temperature much more rapidly than ocean water.

Water has a high specific heat capacity, meaning it takes more energy to change its temperature. This property allows oceans to store a large amount of heat and release it slowly, moderating the temperature of the overlying air. As a result, the air over oceans remains relatively warmer than the air over landmasses during the Northern Hemisphere winter.

Therefore, Statement II is correct.

Relationship between Statement I and Statement II:

The differential heating and cooling of land and water (Statement II) is the primary reason for the bending of isotherms (Statement I). Because land cools more rapidly and becomes colder than the oceans in winter, the isotherms dip southward (equatorward) over land to connect points of equal, colder temperatures. Conversely, because oceans retain heat and are warmer, the isotherms bend northward (poleward) over oceans to connect points of equal, warmer temperatures. This direct relationship indicates that Statement II explains Statement I.

Correct Answer : (a)

Explanation : 

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

Subtropical and Temperate Areas: Atmospheric or wind-borne fugitive dust, also known as aeolian dust, primarily originates from dry regions where high-speed winds can lift silt-sized material. A significant portion of the world’s deserts, which are major sources of dust, are located within the subtropics, where semi-permanent subtropical anticyclones reside. The Sahara Desert, the largest hot desert, is a major source of aeolian mineral dust, with its dust being transported across vast distances, including to the Caribbean and the Amazon basin. Human activities like grazing, ploughing, and vehicle use can also destabilize land and contribute to dust production in these areas. Temperate zones also include continental climates which can have more extreme temperatures and dry conditions in some areas.

Equatorial Regions: Tropical rainforest climates, or equatorial climates, are characterized by consistently high temperatures, plentiful precipitation, heavy cloud cover, and high humidity, with very little annual temperature variation. The constant low atmospheric pressure near the equator means winds are generally rare and weak, except for sea and land breezes in coastal areas. High rainfall in these regions tends to wash dust particles out of the atmosphere.

Polar Regions: Polar climates consist of cool summers and very cold winters, resulting in treeless tundras, glaciers, or permanent ice layers. While “diamond dust” (tiny ice crystals) is common in Antarctica and the Arctic, it’s a form of precipitation, not soil dust. The vast ice and snow cover limit exposed land for dust generation, and while some dust transport from other regions to the Arctic occurs, the primary sources of atmospheric dust are not typically located within the polar regions themselves.

Based on this, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Subtropical Areas: The Hadley cell, a global-scale atmospheric circulation pattern, involves air rising near the equator and descending in the subtropics at around 25-30 degrees latitude, creating high-pressure areas. This descending air is cool and dry, contributing to the formation of subtropical deserts. The surface flow of the Hadley cell, known as the trade winds, deviates westward, producing winds from the east. Mediterranean climates, a type of subtropical climate, are bounded by arid deserts on their equatorward sides that bring dry winds causing dry summers. In some humid subtropical regions, powerful anticyclonic and katabatic (downward-flowing) winds from Central Asia can lead to pronounced dry winters.

Temperate Areas: Temperate climates are influenced by various factors including prevailing wind direction. While some temperate regions experience humid conditions, others, particularly continental climates, can have more extreme temperatures and dry periods.

Therefore, Statement II, which claims that subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds, is incorrect. These regions are, in fact, characterized by significant dry winds, especially in subtropical desert areas.

Conclusion: Statement I is correct, but Statement II is not correct. Therefore, Statement II cannot explain Statement I.

Explanation : 

The phenomenon of continental drift, proposed by Alfred Wegener, is supported by several lines of evidence. Among these evidences are:

I. Matching of Ancient Rock Belts: The geological formations along the coastlines of continents separated by oceans today show remarkable similarities. For instance, the belt of ancient rocks found along the Brazilian coast matches closely with those found along the western coast of Africa. This strongly suggests that these continents were once joined together.

II. Similarity in Mineral Deposits: Mineral deposits, such as gold deposits found in Ghana, have geological continuity with similar deposits found in Brazil. This indicates that these continents were once contiguous, allowing mineral deposits to form in a continuous geological environment before the continents drifted apart.

III. Gondwana Sediments: The Gondwana system of sediments found in India has counterparts in other landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere, such as Africa, Australia, Antarctica, South America, and Madagascar. The presence of similar sedimentary deposits across these widely separated continents provides strong evidence that they were once part of a single large landmass known as Gondwanaland.

Thus, all three statements provided are correct evidences supporting the phenomenon of continental drift.

Hence, the correct answer is option (c): I, II and III.

Explanation : 

India is the largest producer, consumer and exporter of turmeric in the world. In the year 2022-23, an area of 3.24 lakh ha was under turmeric cultivation in India with a production of 11.61 lakh tonnes (over 75% of global turmeric production). More than 30 varieties of Turmeric are grown in India and it is grown in over 20 states in the country. The largest producing states of Turmeric are Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

India has more than 62% share of world trade in turmeric. During 2022-23, 1.534 lakh tonnes of turmeric and turmeric products valued at 207.45 million USD was exported by more than 380 exporters The leading export markets for Indian Turmeric are Bangladesh, UAE, USA and Malaysia. With the focused activities of the Board, it is expected that turmeric exports will reach USD 1 Billion by 2030.

Source : PIB 

Explanation : 

I. Bolivia: The Andes Mountains run through Bolivia, dominating the western part of the country.

II. Brazil: The Andes Mountains do not pass through Brazil. The mountain ranges in Brazil are separate from the Andes.

III. Colombia: The Andes Mountains extend into Colombia, where they split into three parallel ranges.

IV. Ecuador: The Andes Mountains pass through Ecuador, forming two main chains with valleys in between.

V. Paraguay: The Andes Mountains do not pass through Paraguay. Paraguay lies to the east of the Andes.

VI. Venezuela: The Andes Mountains form the northernmost extension of the range in Venezuela.

Therefore, the Andes Mountains pass through Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, and Venezuela. This makes a total of four countries.

Explanation : 

NATO Membership

I. Austria: Austria is a member of NATO’s Partnership for Peace program, but not a full NATO member.

II. Bulgaria: Bulgaria became a NATO member in 2004.

III. Croatia: Croatia became a NATO member in 2009.

IV. Serbia: Serbia is a member of NATO’s Partnership for Peace program, but not a full NATO member.

V. Sweden: Sweden became a NATO member in March 2024.

VI. North Macedonia: North Macedonia became a NATO member in 2020.

Therefore, Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia are members of NATO. This makes a total of four countries.

Explanation : 

Statement I: “Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.”

This statement is correct. Capital receipts are those receipts of the government which either create liabilities (e.g., borrowings) or reduce assets (e.g., disinvestment).

Statement II: “Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.”

This statement is correct. Borrowings create liabilities, and disinvestment reduces government assets. Both are classified as capital receipts.

Statement III: “Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.”

This statement is incorrect. Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt. Revenue receipts neither create liabilities nor reduce assets. Instead, they are regular income for the government.

Thus, statements I and II are correct, while statement III is incorrect. Hence, the correct answer is option (a).

Explanation :

Circular Economy (CE):

A circular economy is an economic system designed to be restorative and regenerative by intention. Its core principles are:

• Design out waste and pollution.
• Keep products and materials in use at their highest utility and value.
• Regenerate natural systems rather than simply extracting resources.

From this definition we derive two fundamental outcomes:
• A significant reduction in the input of virgin raw materials, since products and materials are reused, remanufactured, or recycled (Principle 2).
• A drastic minimization of waste and by-products in production processes through improved design, closed-loop material flows, and resource-efficient manufacturing (Principles 1 & 2).

Examination of the statements:

Statement II: “Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.”
– Directly follows from Principle 2: Keeping materials in use replaces the need for virgin resource extraction.
– Therefore, Statement II is correct.

Statement III: “Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.”
– Follows from Principles 1 and 2: Designing out waste and implementing closed-loop systems curtails production losses and by-products.
– Therefore, Statement III is correct.

Statement I: “Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.”
– By avoiding energy-intensive extraction, refining, manufacturing, and disposal of virgin materials and waste, a circular economy lowers CO₂ and other GHG emissions across the life cycle.

Do Statements II and III explain Statement I?
• Reduced virgin‐material inputs (II) avoid the large energy consumption and associated emissions of mining and processing.
• Reduced production waste (III) eliminates waste-incineration or landfill methane emissions and improves energy efficiency per unit of output.

Hence both II and III are not only correct but also jointly explain how a circular economy achieves the GHG-emission reductions asserted in Statement I.

Conclusion: Option (a) is the correct choice.

Explanation : 

Statement I: India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally, thus exhibiting a great boom.

This statement is correct. Indian exchanges accounted for approximately 78% of the 108 billion equity options contracts traded worldwide in 2023. In the first quarter of 2024, over 84% of all equity options traded globally were on Indian exchanges. India has rapidly transformed from a minor participant to the world’s largest equity derivatives market in just five years.

Statement II: India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past, even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.

This statement is correct. India’s stock market overtook Hong Kong’s in January 2024, becoming the fourth-largest equity market globally by market capitalization. The combined value of shares listed on Indian exchanges reached $4.33 trillion, surpassing Hong Kong’s $4.29 trillion.

Statement III: There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

This statement is incorrect. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory authority for financial markets in India. SEBI has actively warned investors about the risks of options trading, highlighting that a significant majority of investors lose money in this segment. SEBI has also introduced new regulations to address these risks, such as increased margins and stricter position limits for options trading. Regarding unregistered financial advisors, SEBI prohibits entities from associating with them and has directed registered entities to terminate contracts with such advisors. SEBI also takes action against unregistered advisors, including issuing warnings and directing refunds for illegal advisory services.

Conclusion: Only statements I and II are correct. Statement III is incorrect.