Prelims Solution

Paragraph: By the time children reach class 8, the bulk of them tend to be in the age range of 13 years to 15 years.

Paragraph:

By the time children reach class 8, the bulk of them tend to be in the age range of 13 years to 15 years.

But in our country, about a quarter of all children in class 8 struggle with reading simple texts and more than half are still unable to do basic arithmetic operations like division. Every year about 25 million young boys and girls from elementary school move into the life that lies for them beyond compulsory schooling. They cannot enter the workforce at least in the organized sector till they are 18. For many families, these children are the first from their families ever to get this far in school. Parents and children expect that such ‘graduates’ from school will go on to high school and college. Hardly anyone wants to go back to agriculture. On the other hand, abilities in terms of academic competencies are far lower than they should be even based on curricular expectations of class 8.

Q1. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. For effective school education, parents have a greater role than the governments.
2. School curriculum that conforms to today’s requirements and is uniform for the entire country may address the issues brought out.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?
a) Total eradication of poverty in the country will resolve the issue of under-performance of our school-children.
b) Monetary incentives to parents and teachers is a strategy to improve the children’s academic performance.
c) Public policy should ensure that competencies and achievements of young people are aligned with their expectations.
d) India is not going to take advantage of the demographic dividend unless some school pass-outs go back to agriculture.
Correct answer: c) Public policy should ensure that competencies and achievements of young people are aligned with their expectations.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 CSAT

Explanation : 

Q1: Analysis of Assumptions

Let’s examine if the passage supports either assumption:

1. “Parents have a greater role than governments”
– The passage only mentions parents in the context of their expectations
– No comparison is made between parental and governmental roles
– This assumption cannot be derived from the passage

2. “Uniform curriculum may address the issues”
– The passage discusses problems with reading and arithmetic abilities
– It doesn’t suggest or imply that curriculum uniformity would solve these issues
– This assumption cannot be derived from the passage

Therefore, answer (d) “Neither 1 nor 2” is correct since neither assumption can be validated from the passage.

Q2: Central Idea

Key points from the passage:
– Students have poor academic competencies
– They have expectations of higher education
– There’s a gap between their abilities and expectations
– They can’t enter workforce until 18
– Most don’t want to return to agriculture

Looking at the options:
a) Poverty is not mentioned as a factor
b) Monetary incentives aren’t discussed
c) The passage highlights the mismatch between competencies and expectations
d) Agricultural focus isn’t presented as a solution

Option (c) best captures the central theme – there’s a need to align students’ actual competencies with their future expectations through public policy, as evidenced by the discussion of the gap between current abilities and future aspirations.

Paragraph: By the time children reach class 8, the bulk of them tend to be in the age range of 13 years to 15 years. Read More »

Paragraph: Not every voice on the internet commands the same kind of audience.

Paragraph:

Not every voice on the internet commands the same kind of audience.

When anonymous private entities with high capital can pay for more space for their opinions, they are effectively buying a louder voice. If political discourse in the digital sphere is a matter of outshining one’s opponent till the election is won, then the quality of politics suffers. The focus of social media is restricted to the promotion of content that generates more user engagement, regardless of how inflammatory the content may be.

Q1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the above passage?

a) Constructed as a marketplace of views, social media ensures instant access to information.
b) Social media are not ideal or moral institutions but the products built by companies to make profits.
c) Social media have been created to strengthen democracies.
d) In today’s world, social media are inevitable for well-informed social life.
Correct answer: b) Social media are not ideal or moral institutions but the products built by companies to make profits.

Q2. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Internet is not inclusive enough.
2. Internet can adversely affect the quality of politics in a country.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: c) Both 1 and 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 CSAT

Explanation : 

Q1. Central Idea Analysis:
– The paragraph discusses how:
1. Not all voices have equal reach on the internet
2. Those with money can amplify their voices
3. Political discourse is affected by this imbalance
4. Social media prioritizes engagement over content quality
5. Content can be inflammatory but still gets promoted

Looking at the options:
– The paragraph doesn’t celebrate social media’s information access (a)
– It’s not about social media being inevitable (d)
– It doesn’t claim social media strengthens democracy (c)
– Option (b) aligns with the passage’s criticism of how social media operates as a profit-driven system rather than a democratic forum

The correct answer b) is indeed the best match as it captures the passage’s critique of social media as commercial entities rather than democratic institutions.

Q2. Assumptions Analysis:
Let’s examine each assumption:

1. “Internet is not inclusive enough”
– The passage states “Not every voice commands the same audience” and mentions how money can buy louder voices
– This implies inequitable access and influence, supporting this assumption

2. “Internet can adversely affect the quality of politics”
– The passage explicitly states “the quality of politics suffers”
– It mentions how political discourse becomes about “outshining opponents” and promotes inflammatory content

Both assumptions are clearly supported by the passage, making c) “Both 1 and 2” the correct answer.

Paragraph: Not every voice on the internet commands the same kind of audience. Read More »

Paragraph: Today, if we consider cities such as New York, London and Paris as some of the most iconic cities in the world,

Paragraph:

Today, if we consider cities such as New York, London and Paris as some of the most iconic cities in the world,

it is because plans carrying a heavy systems approach were imposed on their precincts. The backbone of the systems theory is the process of translating social, spatial and cultural desirables into mathematical models using computing, statistics, optimization and an algorithmic way of formulating and solving problems. The early universities of the West which began to train professionals in planning, spawned some of the most ingenious planners, who were experts in these domains. This was because these very subjects were absorbed into the planning curriculum that had its roots in the social sciences, geography and architecture. Planning in India, and its education differ from the West.

Q1. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?
a) Curriculum for urban planning courses should have diverse and interdisciplinary approach.
b) In India, city administration is under bureaucracy which lacks formal training in urban planning and management.
c) In India, the management of urban areas is a local affair with a chronic problem of insufficient funds.
d) With high density of population and widespread poverty in our urban areas, planned development in them is very difficult.
Correct answer: a) Curriculum for urban planning courses should have diverse and interdisciplinary approach.

Q2. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. India needs a new generation of urban professionals with knowledge relevant to modern urban practice.
2. Indian universities at present have no capacity or potential to impart training in systems approach.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: a) 1 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 CSAT

Explanation : 

Q1 Analysis:
1. The passage discusses how iconic Western cities benefited from systems approach planning
2. It emphasizes the interdisciplinary nature of planning education in Western universities, combining:
– Computing and statistics
– Social sciences
– Geography
– Architecture
3. The passage contrasts this with India’s different approach
4. Looking at the options, (a) is the most logical inference because:
– The passage shows success coming from diverse expertise
– It demonstrates how combining multiple disciplines led to effective planning
– Other options (b, c, d) discuss issues not directly supported by the passage

Q2 Analysis:
1. For Assumption 1: “India needs new urban professionals with modern knowledge”
– This is reasonable given the passage states India’s planning differs from the West
– The passage shows how Western success came from well-trained professionals
– This assumption aligns with the passage’s implications

2. For Assumption 2: “Indian universities have no capacity for systems approach”
– The passage only states that Indian planning education differs
– It doesn’t suggest Indian universities lack capacity or potential
– This is too extreme an assumption not supported by the text

Therefore:
– Answer (a) “1 only” is correct because while Assumption 1 can be reasonably inferred, Assumption 2 goes beyond what the passage supports.

Paragraph: Today, if we consider cities such as New York, London and Paris as some of the most iconic cities in the world, Read More »

Paragraph: As inflation rises, even governments previously committed to budget discipline are spending freely to help households.

Paragraph:

As inflation rises, even governments previously committed to budget discipline are spending freely to help households.

Higher interest rates announced by central banks are supposed to help produce modest fiscal austerity, because to maintain stable debts while paying more to borrow, governments must cut spending or raise taxes. Without the fiscal backup, monetary policy eventually loses traction. Higher interest rates become inflationary, not disinflationary, because they simply lead governments to borrow more to pay rising debt-service costs. The risk of monetary unmooring is greater when public debt rises, because interest rates become more important to budget deficits.

Q1. Which of the following statements best reflect the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made from the passage?
1. Central banks cannot bring down inflation without budgetary backing.
2. The effects of monetary policy depend on the fiscal policies pursued by the government.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: c) Both 1 and 2

Q2. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
1. Fiscal policies of governments are solely responsible for higher prices.
2. Higher prices do not affect the long-term government bonds.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 CSAT

Explanation : 

Q1. Let’s examine the given statements:

1. “Central banks cannot bring down inflation without budgetary backing”
– The passage states that “Without the fiscal backup, monetary policy eventually loses traction”
– It also mentions that higher interest rates can become inflationary instead of disinflationary without fiscal support
– This statement is supported by the passage

2. “The effects of monetary policy depend on the fiscal policies pursued by the government”
– The passage shows that government spending decisions affect how monetary policy works
– When governments continue to spend freely despite higher interest rates, it undermines the intended disinflationary effect
– Fiscal policy choices clearly influence monetary policy effectiveness
– This statement is also supported by the passage

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Both statements are logical inferences that can be made from the passage.

Q2. Let’s examine the assumptions:

1. “Fiscal policies of governments are solely responsible for higher prices”
– The passage discusses both monetary and fiscal factors affecting inflation
– It doesn’t suggest that fiscal policy is the sole cause of higher prices
– This is not a valid assumption

2. “Higher prices do not affect the long-term government bonds”
– The passage doesn’t discuss this relationship at all
– No information is provided about the effect of prices on government bonds
– This is not a valid assumption

Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Neither assumption can be validated based on the information provided in the passage.

Paragraph: As inflation rises, even governments previously committed to budget discipline are spending freely to help households. Read More »

Q. In some code, letters P, Q, R, S, T represent numbers 4, 5, 10, 12, 15. It is not known which letter represents which number. If Q-S= 2S and T=R+S+3, then what is the value of P+R-T?

Q. In some code, letters P, Q, R, S, T represent numbers 4, 5, 10, 12, 15. It is not known which letter represents which number. If Q-S= 2S and T=R+S+3, then what is the value of P+R-T?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
Correct answer: b) 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 CSAT

Explanation : 

Let’s determine the values of P, Q, R, S, and T based on the given conditions and the available numbers: 4, 5, 10, 12, 15.

Step 1: Analyze the Equation Q – S = 2S
This simplifies to:
Q = 3S

We need to find pairs (S, Q) where Q is three times S and both are among the available numbers:
– If S = 4, then Q = 12 (valid)
– If S = 5, then Q = 15 (valid)
– S = 10 would give Q = 30 (invalid)
– S = 12 would give Q = 36 (invalid)
– S = 15 would give Q = 45 (invalid)

So, the possible pairs are (S, Q) = (4, 12) or (5, 15).

Step 2: Analyze the Equation T = R + S + 3

Case 1: S = 4 and Q = 12
Substitute S = 4 into the equation:
T = R + 4 + 3 = R + 7

The remaining numbers are 5, 10, 15:
– If R = 5, then T = 12 (already assigned to Q, invalid)
– If R = 10, then T = 17 (invalid)
– If R = 15, then T = 22 (invalid)

This case yields no valid solution.

Case 2: S = 5 and Q = 15
Substitute S = 5 into the equation:
T = R + 5 + 3 = R + 8

The remaining numbers are 4, 10, 12:
– If R = 4, then T = 12 (valid)
– If R = 10, then T = 18 (invalid)
– If R = 12, then T = 20 (invalid)

Thus, the valid assignments are:
– S = 5
– Q = 15
– R = 4
– T = 12
– P = 10 (the only remaining number)

Step 3: Calculate P + R – T
P + R – T = 10 + 4 – 12 = 2

Answer: b) 2

Q. In some code, letters P, Q, R, S, T represent numbers 4, 5, 10, 12, 15. It is not known which letter represents which number. If Q-S= 2S and T=R+S+3, then what is the value of P+R-T? Read More »

Q. What will come in place of * in the sequence 3, 14, 39, 84, *, 258?

Q. What will come in place of * in the sequence 3, 14, 39, 84, *, 258?

a) 150
b) 155
c) 160
d)176
Correct answer: b) 155

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 CSAT

Explanation : 

To determine the missing number in the sequence 3, 14, 39, 84, *, 258, we’ll analyze the pattern based on the hint: “Use sum of number square & cube.”

Step-by-Step Reasoning:

1. Identify the Position (n) of Each Term:
n = 1: 3
n = 2: 14
n = 3: 39
n = 4: 84
n = 5: ?
n = 6: 258

2. Apply the Formula:
The pattern suggests that each term is the sum of the cube and square of its position number (n), plus the number itself.
Formula: Term = n³ + n² + n

3. Calculate Each Term Using the Formula:
For n = 1:
1³ + 1² + 1 = 1 + 1 + 1 = 3

For n = 2:
2³ + 2² + 2 = 8 + 4 + 2 = 14

For n = 3:
3³ + 3² + 3 = 27 + 9 + 3 = 39

For n = 4:
4³ + 4² + 4 = 64 + 16 + 4 = 84

For n = 5:
5³ + 5² + 5 = 125 + 25 + 5 = 155

For n = 6:
6³ + 6² + 6 = 216 + 36 + 6 = 258

4. Conclusion:
The missing term for n = 5 is 155.

Final Answer: b) 155

Q. What will come in place of * in the sequence 3, 14, 39, 84, *, 258? Read More »

Q. If in a certain code, ‘POT’ is written as ATOP and ‘TRAP’ is written as APART, then how is ‘ARENA’ written in that code?

Q. If in a certain code, ‘POT’ is written as ATOP and ‘TRAP’ is written as APART, then how is ‘ARENA’ written in that code?

a) AARENA
b) AANREA
c) AANEAR
d) AANERA
Correct answer: d) AANERA

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 CSAT

Explanation : 

To determine how the word “ARENA” is encoded, let’s analyze the given examples:

1. POT → ATOP
Original Word: POT
Reversed: TOP
Encoded: A + TOP = ATOP

2. TRAP → APART
Original Word: TRAP
Reversed: PART
Encoded: A + PART = APART

From these examples, the pattern is clear:
– Add an “A” at the beginning
– Reverse the original word and append it after the “A”

Applying this pattern to “ARENA”:

Original Word: ARENA
Reversed: ANERA
Encoded: A + ANERA = AANERA

Answer: d) AANERA

Q. If in a certain code, ‘POT’ is written as ATOP and ‘TRAP’ is written as APART, then how is ‘ARENA’ written in that code? Read More »

Q. If in a certain code, ‘ABCD’ is written as 24 and ‘EFGH’ is written as 1680, then how is ‘IJKL’ written in that code?

Q. If in a certain code, ‘ABCD’ is written as 24 and ‘EFGH’ is written as 1680, then how is ‘IJKL’ written in that code?

a) 11880
b) 11240
c) 7920
d) 5940
Correct answer: a) 11880

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 CSAT

Explanation : 

To determine how “IJKL” is encoded, let’s analyze the given examples:

1. ABCD:
A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, D = 4
Product: 1 x 2 x 3 x 4 = 24

2. EFGH:
E = 5, F = 6, G = 7, H = 8
Product: 5 x 6 x 7 x 8 = 1680

The pattern involves taking the numerical value of each letter (A=1, B=2, …, Z=26) and multiplying them together.

3. IJKL:
I = 9, J = 10, K = 11, L = 12
Product: 9 x 10 x 11 x 12 = 11880

Answer: a) 11880

Q. If in a certain code, ‘ABCD’ is written as 24 and ‘EFGH’ is written as 1680, then how is ‘IJKL’ written in that code? Read More »

Q. If P means ‘greater than (>)’; Q means less than (<)’; R means ‘not greater than (>)’; S means ‘not less than (<)’ and T means ‘equal to (=)’, then consider the following statements:

Q. If P means ‘greater than (>)’; Q means less than (<)’; R means ‘not greater than (>)’; S means ‘not less than (<)’ and T means ‘equal to (=)’, then consider the following statements:

1. If 2x(S)3y and 3x(T)4z, then 9y(P)8z.
2. If x(Q)2y and y(R)z, then x(R)z.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 CSAT

Explanation : 

Statement 1: “If 2x is not less than 3y AND 3x equals 4z, then 9y is greater than 8z”

Analysis:
1. From 3x equals 4z, we can say x equals 4z/3
2. Putting this in first condition: 2(4z/3) is not less than 3y
3. Simplifying: 8z/3 is not less than 3y
4. Multiplying both sides by 3: 8z is not less than 9y
5. Therefore: 9y is less than or equal to 8z
6. But statement claims 9y is greater than 8z
7. This is a contradiction

Statement 2: “If x is less than 2y AND y is not greater than z, then x is not greater than z”

Analysis:
1. From first condition: x < 2y
2. From second condition: y ≤ z
3. Putting these together: x < 2z
4. However, x < 2z does not guarantee that x ≤ z
5. Counter example: Let z = 1, y = 1, x = 1.9
– Here x < 2y is true (1.9 < 2)
– y ≤ z is true (1 ≤ 1)
– But x ≤ z is false (1.9 is not ≤ 1)

Therefore, both statements are false.

Q. If P means ‘greater than (>)’; Q means less than ()’; S means ‘not less than (<)’ and T means ‘equal to (=)’, then consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. If a+b means a-b; a-b means axb; axb means a÷b; a÷b means a+b, then what is the value of 10+30-100 x 50÷25? (Operations are to be replaced simultaneously)

Q. If a+b means a-b; a-b means axb; axb means a÷b; a÷b means a+b, then what is the value of 10+30-100 x 50÷25? (Operations are to be replaced simultaneously)

a) 15
b) 0
c) -15
d) -25
Correct answer: d) -25

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 CSAT

Explanation : 

Original Expression:
10 + 30 – 100 x 50 / 25

Replacing each operator simultaneously:
The plus sign (+) becomes minus (-)
The minus sign (-) becomes multiply (x)
The multiply sign (x) becomes divide (/)
The divide sign (/) becomes plus (+)

After replacing all operators at once, the expression becomes:
10 – 30 x 100 / 50 + 25

Now let’s solve this expression following standard order of operations:

First step: Work out multiplication
30 x 100 equals 3000

Second step: Work out division
3000 / 50 equals 60

Third step: The expression is now
10 – 60 + 25

Fourth step: Work from left to right with subtraction and addition
10 minus 60 equals -50
-50 plus 25 equals -25

Therefore, the final answer is -25

Q. If a+b means a-b; a-b means axb; axb means a÷b; a÷b means a+b, then what is the value of 10+30-100 x 50÷25? (Operations are to be replaced simultaneously) Read More »