1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. 2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties. 3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. 4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct? a. Only one b. Only two c. Only three d. All four
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
d. All four
Some mushrooms do have medicinal properties, such as immune system support and anti-cancer effects.
Some mushrooms also have psycho-active properties, like psilocybin mushrooms, which cause hallucinations.
Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties, like certain entomopathogenic fungi that can kill or disable insects.
Lastly, some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties, like the “glow-in-the-dark” mushrooms that emit light through a process called bioluminescence.
Q75. Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
a. Butterflies b. Dragonflies c. Honeybees d. Wasps
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
c. Honeybees
Honeybees
Honeybees perform the waggle dance to communicate with their fellow bees about the location of a food source. The dance consists of a series of movements and vibrations that encode information about the direction and distance to the food source. This helps the colony to efficiently gather nectar and pollen from flowers.
Q73. Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?
a. The International Union for Conservation of Nature b. The United Nations Environment Programme c. The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development d. The World Wide Fund for Nature
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
Correct Answer – a. The International Union for Conservation of Nature
Invasive Species Specialist Group
The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG) is a part of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). The IUCN is a global organization that focuses on the conservation of nature and the sustainable use of natural resources. The ISSG is a specialist group within the IUCN that specifically works on addressing the threat of invasive species to biodiversity and ecosystems. They develop the Global Invasive Species Database, which is a comprehensive resource on invasive species and their impacts on native ecosystems.
Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-H is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Marsupials and Their Habitat
Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. They are primarily native to Australia, New Guinea, and nearby islands, with some species also found in the Americas.
Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive in various habitats, not just montane grasslands, and they do face predators in their natural environments. For example, kangaroos, which are marsupials, inhabit a wide range of habitats, including forests, grasslands, and deserts, and have predators such as dingoes and eagles. The statement that marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators is incorrect.
Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c. Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect d. Statement-I is incorrect Statement-II is correct
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
c. Statement-I is correct Statement-II is incorrect
Energy Sources and Uranium Enrichment
Statement-I : India does have uranium deposits, but it primarily depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Coal is abundant and relatively cheaper in India, making it the dominant source of energy for electricity generation.
Statement-II : Uranium enriched to the extent of at least 60% is not required for the production of electricity. In fact, commercial nuclear power plants typically use uranium enriched to about 3-5% for fuel. Uranium with a higher enrichment level, such as 60%, is not necessary for electricity production and is generally used for other purposes, such as nuclear weapons or research reactors.
1. Demographic performance 2. Forest and ecology 3. Governance reforms 4. Stable government 5. Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
a. Only two b. Only three c. Only four d. All five
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
b. Only three
Criteria for Horizontal Tax Devolution
The Fifteenth Finance Commission used several criteria other than population, area, and income distance for horizontal tax devolution. These criteria are:
1. Demographic Performance
This criterion rewards states with lower fertility rates with a higher share of tax revenue, considering their efforts to control population growth.
2. Forest and Ecology
States with a larger forest cover receive a higher share of tax revenue to compensate for the environmental services they provide.
3. Tax and Fiscal Efforts
Efficiency in tax collection and efforts to improve revenue-generating capacity are considered in this criterion. States with better tax collection performance receive a higher share of tax revenue.
The other two factors, governance reforms and stable government, were not used as criteria by the Fifteenth Finance Commission for horizontal tax devolution.
Q68. Consider the investments in the following assets: 1. Brand recognition 2. Inventory 3. Intellectual property 4. Mailing list of clients
How many of the above intangible investments? a. Only one b. Only two c. Only three d. All four
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
c. Only three
Intangible Investments
1. Brand recognition is an intangible investment because it represents the value of a company’s reputation, name, and image in the market, which cannot be physically touched or seen.
2. Inventory is not an intangible investment, as it consists of physical goods and materials that a company holds for sale or production.
3. Intellectual property, such as patents, copyrights, and trademarks, is an intangible investment because it represents the legal rights and protections granted to a company’s creations, which cannot be physically touched or seen.
4. Mailing list of clients is an intangible investment because it represents the value of a company’s relationship with its customers, which cannot be physically touched or seen.
1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds. 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct? a. Only one b. Only two c. All three d. None
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
c. All three
1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price (MSP) for various agricultural commodities, including niger seeds, to ensure a guaranteed price for farmers and to protect them from price fluctuations in the market.
2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop, which is sown during the monsoon season (June to September) in India.
3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking as it is rich in nutrients and has a unique flavor. The oil is also used in traditional medicine and for making soaps and paints.
Q66. Which one of the following best describes the concept of ‘Small Farmer Large Field’?
a. Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce
b. Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
c. Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers
d. A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
b. Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
The concept of “Small Farmer Large Field” refers to a situation where many small or marginal farmers in a particular area come together and organize themselves into groups to better manage their agricultural operations. By working together, these farmers can synchronize and harmonize their farming activities, which can lead to increased efficiency, reduced costs, and improved productivity. This approach allows small farmers to take advantage of economies of scale and can help them compete more effectively in the market.
Q64. Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of ‘sterilization’?
a. Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’ b. Oversight of settlement and payment systems c. Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments d. Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
Correct Answer – a. Conducting ‘Open Market Operations’
Sterilization and Open Market Operations
Sterilization refers to the process of managing the impact of foreign currency inflows on the domestic money supply. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) achieves this through conducting ‘Open Market Operations’ (OMOs). OMOs involve the buying and selling of government securities in the open market to adjust the money supply in the economy. When the RBI wants to reduce the money supply, it sells government securities, and when it wants to increase the money supply, it buys government securities. This helps in maintaining price stability and controlling inflation.