Prelims 2023 GS Solution

Q74. Consider the following fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar Civet 3. Sambar Deer

Q74. Consider the following fauna:

1. Lion-tailed Macaque
2. Malabar Civet
3. Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer: a. Only one

Lion-tailed Macaque (Macaca silenus)

This primate is native to the Western Ghats of India, and it is mainly diurnal, meaning it is active during the day. They spend most of their time in the trees, foraging for food like fruits, leaves, and insects. They are known for their distinctive appearance, with a silver-white mane surrounding their face and a black tuft at the end of their tail, resembling a lion’s tail.

Malabar Civet (Viverra civettina)

This small, nocturnal mammal is native to the Western Ghats of India. They are most active after sunset, when they come out to hunt for food such as small mammals, birds, and insects. Malabar Civets are solitary animals and are known for their secretive and elusive behavior. They are also critically endangered due to habitat loss and hunting for their fur and musk.

Sambar Deer (Rusa unicolor)

This large deer species is native to the Indian subcontinent, Southeast Asia, and southern China. They are generally nocturnal or crepuscular, meaning they are most active during dawn and dusk. Sambar Deer are herbivores, feeding on a variety of vegetation such as grasses, leaves, and fruits. They are known for their large size, with males sporting impressive antlers, and their distinctive, horse-like appearance.

Note: You can easily verify this by using google image, most of image for nocturnal animals will be taken in night because they are active in night.
Check for lion tailed macaque nocturnal images, you won’t find any picture taken in night.

Q74. Consider the following fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar Civet 3. Sambar Deer Read More »

Q98. Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’

Q98. Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’

1. The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest.
2. Hunting is not allowed in such area.
3. People of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
4. People of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four

Correct Answer: b. Only two (Official UPSC Answer)

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Note: Explanation requires update after official answer key released.

Correct Answer – a. Only One

Statement 1 – The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State does not become the governing authority of such forest. Instead, a Community Reserve Management Committee is constituted to manage the reserve.

wild_act_02 (chandigarhforest.gov.in)
Source – India Code: Section Details

Statement 2,4 – The village councils in Nagaland are autonomous bodies that enter into the MoU after convincing the land owners that declaring a particular patch of forest will be good for conservation, Alemwapang T Imchen, assistant conservator of forests, Mangmetong village, told DTE.

“After a forest has been made into a community reserve, people cannot hunt there, nor can they use it for agricultural practices, leave alone jhum cultivation,” he added.

Source – Community reserves: Are they forest department’s backdoor entry into North East India (downtoearth.org.in) 

Statement 3 – Statement 1,2,4 are incorrect. So Answer is a. Only One

Q98. Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’ Read More »

Q97. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

Q97. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is not joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer: b. Only two

1. As the Finance Bill is a type of money bill, It (like the money bills) cannot be either rejected or amended by the Rajya Sabha.(Incorrect)

2. When the Lok Sabha transmits a Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill; it can only make recommendations. (Correct)

3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for a Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for a Finance Bill. (Correct)

Parliament (Part-III) (drishtiias.com)

Q97. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q99. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:

Q99. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements:

1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.

How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer – b. Only Two
Statement 1 –
Scheduled Areas.—(1) In this Constitution, the expression “Scheduled Areas” means such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas.
Source – S5.pdf (mea.gov.in)

Statement 2 – The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District, while the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.

Statement 3 – Para 3 of the Fifth Schedule to the Constitution lays down that “the Governor of each State having Scheduled Areas therein shall annually, or whenever so required by the President, make a report to the president regarding the administration of the Scheduled Areas in that State and the executive power of the union shall extend to the giving of directions to the State as to the Administration of the said areas”.
Source – S5.pdf (mea.gov.in)

Q99. With reference to ‘Scheduled Areas’ in India, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q94. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

Q94. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

a. 1st Amendment
b. 42nd Amendment
c. 44th Amendment
d. 86th Amendment

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

UPSC cancelled this question

Correct Answer: b. 42nd Amendment

On 31 July 1980, in its judgement on Minerva Mills v. Union of India, the Supreme Court declared two provisions of the 42nd Amendment as unconstitutional which prevent any constitutional amendment from being “called in question in any Court on any ground” and accord precedence to the Directive Principles of State Policy over the Fundamental Rights of individuals respectively.

Forty-second Amendment of the Constitution of India – Wikipedia

Q94. In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights? Read More »

Q91. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ means?

Q91. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ means?

a. The principle of natural Justice
b. The procedure established by law
c. Fair application of law
d. Equality before law

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer: a. The principle of natural Justice

Due Process of Law

encompasses the principles of natural justice, ensuring that individuals are treated fairly, impartially, and without bias by the government. It requires that legal procedures be followed when dealing with individuals, safeguarding their rights and ensuring they have an opportunity to be heard.

Due Process of Law vs Procedure Established by Law – UPSC OWL

Q91. In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ means? Read More »

Q86. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following parts: Literary work – Author

Q86. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following parts:
Literary work – Author

1. Devichandragupta : Bilhana
2. Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri
3. Milinda-panha : Nagarjuna
4. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation :

Correct Answer: b. Only two

Analysis of Literary Works and Authors

1. Devichandraguptam – Bilhana

This pair is incorrectly matched. “Devichandraguptam” is not a known work of Bilhana. Bilhana is famous for his work “Vikramankadevacharita,” which describes the life of the Chalukya king Vikramaditya VI.

2. Hammira-Mahakavya – Nayachandra Suri

This pair is correctly matched. Nayachandra Suri wrote the “Hammira Mahakavya,” which is an epic poem in Prakrit language celebrating the life of Hammira, a ruler of the Chauhan dynasty of Ranthambore.

3. Milinda-panha – Nagarjuna

This pair is incorrectly matched. “Milinda-panha” (Questions of Milinda) is a Buddhist text that documents a dialogue between the Indo-Greek king Menander (Milinda) and the Buddhist monk Nagasena. Nagarjuna, a major Buddhist philosopher, did not write this text.

4. Nitivakyamrita – Somadeva Suri

This pair is correctly matched. Somadeva Suri, a Jain monk and scholar, wrote “Nitivakyamrita,” which is a work on ethics and morality in Jainism.

Based on the analysis, only two of the pairs are correctly matched:

  • Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra Suri
  • Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri

Therefore, the correct answer is: b. Only two

Q86. With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following parts: Literary work – Author Read More »

Q80. Consider the following: 1. Aerosols 2. Foam agents 3. Fire retardants 4. Lubricants

Q80. Consider the following:

1. Aerosols
2. Foam agents
3. Fire retardants
4. Lubricants

In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer: c. Only three

Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) and their Applications

Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) are commonly used in various applications as replacements for ozone-depleting substances like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs). Let’s examine each of the given items:

Aerosols

HFCs are used as propellants in aerosol sprays, such as in some air fresheners, deodorants, and cleaning products.

Foam Agents

HFCs are used as blowing agents in the production of certain foams, including those used for insulation and packaging.

Fire Retardants

Some fire suppression systems and fire extinguishers use HFCs as the extinguishing agent.

Lubricants: HFCs are not typically used as lubricants. Lubricants are usually made from mineral oils, synthetic oils, or greases.

Therefore, hydrofluorocarbons are used in the making of three out of the four items listed: aerosols, foam agents, and fire retardants.

The correct answer is: c. Only three.

Q80. Consider the following: 1. Aerosols 2. Foam agents 3. Fire retardants 4. Lubricants Read More »

Q77. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:

Q77. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels:

1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
3. They are omnivorous.

How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer – b. Only two

Indian squirrels

Indian squirrels belong to the family Sciuridae and are native to the Indian subcontinent. They are small to medium-sized mammals known for their agility, bushy tails, and strong hind legs. There are several species of squirrels found in India, such as the Indian palm squirrel, Malabar giant squirrel, and Himalayan striped squirrel. Here is a detailed explanation of the given statements:

1. Indian squirrels build nests in trees: Indian squirrels are arboreal creatures, which means they spend most of their lives in trees. They build their nests, called dreys, in tree branches. Dreys are made from twigs, leaves, and other plant materials, providing a warm and safe place for squirrels to rest, sleep, and raise their young. They do not make burrows in the ground like some other mammals, such as rabbits or ground squirrels.

2. Nuts are their main food source throughout the year, particularly when they are hunkering down for winter.  These creatures store them by burying them underground so they can retrieve them later when it turns to winter.

3. Indian squirrels are omnivorous: As mentioned earlier, Indian squirrels have a diverse diet, feeding on both plant and animal matter. This makes them omnivorous creatures. Their diet primarily consists of fruits, nuts, seeds, and flowers, but they also consume insects, small birds, and eggs when available. This adaptability in their diet allows them to thrive in various habitats, from dense forests to urban areas.

Q77. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: Read More »

Q70. Consider the following infrastructure sectors: 1. Affordable housing 2. Mass rapid transport 3. Health care 4. Renewable energy

Q70. Consider the following infrastructure sectors:
1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Health care
4. Renewable energy

On how man of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer: c. Only three

UNOPS S3i is an initiative that aims to promote sustainable infrastructure development and investment in emerging markets. It is a part of the United Nations Office for Project Services (UNOPS) and focuses on developing large-scale infrastructure projects in affordable housing, renewable energy, and health infrastructure. UNOPS S3i works with governments, investors, and builders to create socially responsible and commercially viable infrastructure projects that can make a positive impact on local communities.

WANTED – Partnership Proposals (unops.org)

Q70. Consider the following infrastructure sectors: 1. Affordable housing 2. Mass rapid transport 3. Health care 4. Renewable energy Read More »