Prelims Solution

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the Président of India.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the Président of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: c) 2 and 3 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Process of Amending the Indian Constitution

The process of amending the Indian Constitution is a critical aspect of the country’s parliamentary democracy. This process is governed by Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, which lays down the procedure for its amendment. Here’s an in-depth look at the statements provided to clarify the procedure.

Presidential Recommendation for Constitution Amendment Bills

Contrary to the first statement, a Constitution Amendment Bill does not require a prior recommendation of the President of India to be introduced in the Parliament. Members of either House of Parliament can introduce such a bill without the President’s recommendation. However, for amendments that affect the federal structure, ratification by state legislatures is necessary.

Presidential Assent to Constitution Amendment Bills

The second statement is accurate as it highlights the obligatory nature of the President’s assent. Once a Constitution Amendment Bill has been passed by both Houses of Parliament with the required special majority, the President must give his/her assent, thereby making it mandatory.

Special Majority and No Provision for Joint Sitting

The third statement correctly mentions that a Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha with a special majority. Additionally, it emphasizes that there is no provision for a joint sitting in case of a deadlock between the two Houses, which is a unique aspect of the amendment process.

In conclusion, statements 2 and 3 provide an accurate representation of the constitutional amendment process in India, while statement 1 does not align with the procedural requirements as per the Indian Constitution.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the Président of India. Read More »

Q. The social order is a sacred right which is the basis of all other rights. Nevertheless, this right does not come from nature, and must therefore be founded on conventions.

Q. The social order is a sacred right which is the basis of all other rights. Nevertheless, this right does not come from nature, and must therefore be founded on conventions.

Q. 1. With reference to the above passage, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.  Conventions are the sources of rights of man.
2.  Rights of man can be exercised only when there is a social order.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • a.  1 only
  • b.  2 only
  • c.  Both 1 and 2
  • d.  Neither 1 nor 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
Q1: Correct Answer – c.    Both 1 and 2
Explanation – Based on the passage, it seems that both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The passage states that the social order is a sacred right and the basis of all other rights. However, this right does not come from nature and must be founded on conventions. This implies that conventions are the sources of rights of man (statement 1). Additionally, since the social order is the basis of all other rights, it can be inferred that rights of man can only be exercised when there is a social order (statement 2). Therefore, the correct answer would be c. Both 1 and 2.

Q. The social order is a sacred right which is the basis of all other rights. Nevertheless, this right does not come from nature, and must therefore be founded on conventions. Read More »

Q. The majority of people who fail to accumulate money sufficient for their needs, are generally, easily influenced by the opinions of others.

Q. The majority of people who fail to accumulate money sufficient for their needs, are generally, easily influenced by the opinions of others.

They permit the newspapers and the gossiping neighbours to do their thinking for them. Opinions are the cheapest commodities on the earth. Everyone has a flock of opinions ready to be wished upon by anyone who will accept them. If you are influenced by opinions when you reach decisions, you will not succeed in any undertaking.

Q. 1. Which one of the following is implied by the passage?

a. Most of the people do not accumulate money for their needs.
b. Most of the people never fail to accumulate money for their needs.
c. There are people who fail to accumulate money for their needs.
d. There is no need to accumulate money.

Q. 2. What is the main idea of the passage?

a. People should not be influenced by the opinions of others.
b. People should accumulate as much money as they can
c. People should neither give nor accept the opinions.
d. People will succeed in any undertaking if they do not accept any opinion at all.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
Q1: Correct Answer – c.    There are people who fail to accumulate money for their needs.
Explanation – The implied statement in the passage is that “there are people who fail to accumulate money for their needs” (Option C). The passage explains that such people are easily influenced by the opinions of others, and they let the newspapers and gossiping neighbours do their thinking for them. According to the author, opinions are cheap commodities, and if you let them influence your decisions, you will not succeed in any undertaking.

Q2: Correct Answer – a.    People should not be influenced by the opinions of others.
Explanation – The main idea of the passage is that people should not be influenced by the opinions of others when making decisions. So the correct answer is a. “People should not be influenced by the opinions of others.” The passage states that “If you are influenced by opinions when you reach decisions, you will not succeed in any undertaking,” which implies that people should make their own decisions and not be swayed by the opinions of others.

Q. The majority of people who fail to accumulate money sufficient for their needs, are generally, easily influenced by the opinions of others. Read More »

Q. How best can the problems of floods and droughts be addressed so that the losses are minimal and the system becomes resilient?

Q. How best can the problems of floods and droughts be addressed so that the losses are minimal and the system becomes resilient?

In this context, one important point that needs to be noted is that India gets too much’ water (about 75% of annual precipitation) during 120 days (June to September) and too little’ for the remaining 245 days. This skewed water availability has to be managed and regulated for its consumption throughout the year.

Q. Which one of the following best reflects the practical, rational and lasting solution?

a. Constructing huge concrete storage tanks and canals across the country
b. Changing the cropping patterns and farming practices
c. Interlinking of rivers across the country
d. Buffer stocking of water through dams and recharging aquifers

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
Q1: Correct Answer – d.   Buffer stocking of water through dams and recharging aquifers
Explanation – The practical, rational, and lasting solution to address the problems of floods and droughts in India would be a combination of measures that focus on managing and regulating water availability throughout the year. This would involve implementing a range of strategies to minimize losses, increase resilience, and ensure sustainable water use.

Out of the options provided, option (d) – buffer stocking of water through dams and recharging aquifers – would be the most appropriate solution for managing water availability in India. This involves constructing dams and reservoirs to capture and store excess water during the monsoon season, which can then be used during periods of drought. Additionally, measures such as recharging aquifers and promoting rainwater harvesting can help to replenish groundwater resources, which are critical for agricultural and domestic use.

Q. How best can the problems of floods and droughts be addressed so that the losses are minimal and the system becomes resilient? Read More »

Q. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India

Q. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: d) Neither 1 nor 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation :

  1. Foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India are not allowed to sell their own goods directly to consumers. They can only operate as marketplaces where third-party sellers can list and sell their products. This means that statement 1 is incorrect.
  2. Incorrect according to official answer key.

Q. With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India Read More »

Q. To encourage research is one of the functions of a university.

Q. To encourage research is one of the functions of a university.

Contemporary universities have encouraged research, not only in those cases where research is necessary, but on all sorts of entirely unprofitable subjects as well. Scientific research is probably never completely valueless. However silly and insignificant it may seem, however mechanical and unintelligent the labours of the researchers, there is always a chance that the results may be of value to the investigator of talent, who can use the facts collected for him by uninspired but industrious researchers as the basis of some fruitful generalization. But where research is not original, but consists in the mere rearrangement of existing materials, where its object is not scientific but literary or historical, then there is a risk of the whole business becoming merely futile.

Q. 1. The author’s assumption about scientific research is that

  • a. it is never very valuable
  • b. it is sometimes very valuable
  • c. it is never without some value
  • d.it is always very valuable

Q. 2. According to the author

  • a. not many research results can be of value to an intelligent investigator
  • b. a research result is always valuable to an intelligent investigator
  • c. any research result can be of value to an intelligent investigator
  • d. a research result must always be of some value to an intelligent investigator

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
Q1: Correct Answer – c.    it is never without some value
Explanation – The author’s assumption about scientific research is that it is never without some value. The author states that “Scientific research is probably never completely valueless” and that even if the research may seem silly and insignificant or mechanical and unintelligent, there is always a chance that the results may be of value to an investigator of talent. Therefore, the correct answer is c. it is never without some value.

Q2: Correct Answer – c.    there are no evidences to refute it
Explanation – According to the author, any research result can be of value to an intelligent investigator. The author states that even if the research may seem silly and insignificant or mechanical and unintelligent, there is always a chance that the results may be of value to an investigator of talent. Therefore, the correct answer is c. any research result can be of value to an intelligent investigator.

Q. To encourage research is one of the functions of a university. Read More »

Q. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?

Q. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?

1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIBS provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: a) 1 and 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs) UPSC

Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs) are a type of bond designed to help protect investors from inflation. The principal amount of the bond is indexed to inflation, ensuring that the purchasing power of the investor’s money is maintained.

Benefits of IIBs for Government Borrowing

Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. Since IIBs provide a hedge against inflation, investors are typically willing to accept lower nominal coupon rates on these bonds compared to conventional bonds. The real return is adjusted for inflation, so the government can issue these bonds with a lower coupon rate, potentially reducing its cost of borrowing.

Protection from Inflation Uncertainty

IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. The principal value of IIBs is adjusted according to the inflation rate, which means that the returns on these bonds are designed to keep up with inflation. This protects investors from the erosion of purchasing power that can occur with fixed-rate bonds during periods of high inflation.

Tax Implications of IIBs

The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. This statement is incorrect. In India, like many other countries, the interest received on bonds is typically subject to income tax. Capital gains from bonds may also be taxable depending on the holding period and applicable tax laws at the time of sale or redemption. There may be specific tax-exempt bonds issued by the government, but IIBs do not inherently come with a tax exemption on interest and capital gains.

Q. With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? Read More »

Q. Unless the forces and tendencies which are responsible for destroying the country’s environment are checked in the near future and afforestation of denuded areas is taken up on a massive scale, the harshness of the climatic conditions and soil erosion by wind and water will increase to such an extent that agriculture, which is the mainstay of our people, will gradually become impossible.

Q. Unless the forces and tendencies which are responsible for destroying the country’s environment are checked in the near future and afforestation of denuded areas is taken up on a massive scale, the harshness of the climatic conditions and soil erosion by wind and water will increase to such an extent that agriculture, which is the mainstay of our people, will gradually become impossible.

The desert countries of the world and our own desert areas in Rajasthan are a grim reminder of the consequences of large-scale deforestation. Pockets of desert-like landscape are now appearing in other parts of the country including the Sutlej-Ganga Plains and the Deccan Plateau. Where only a few decades back there used to be lush green forests with perennial streams and springs, there is only brown earth, bare of vegetation, without any water in the streams and springs except in the rainy season.

Q. 1. According to the passage given above, deforestation and denudation will ultimately lead to which of the following?
1.    Depletion of soil resource
2.    Shortage of land for the common man
3.    Lack of water for cultivation
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • a.    1 and 2 only
  • b.   2 and 3 only
  • c.    1 and 3 only
  • d.   1, 2 and 3

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
Q1: Correct Answer – c.    1 and 3 only
Explanation – The passage states that if the forces and tendencies responsible for destroying the country’s environment are not checked in the near future and afforestation of denuded areas is not taken up on a massive scale, then soil erosion by wind and water will increase to such an extent that agriculture will gradually become impossible. This implies that deforestation and denudation will lead to depletion of soil resource (option 1) and lack of water for cultivation (option 3). Therefore, the correct answer is c. 1 and 3 only.

Q. Unless the forces and tendencies which are responsible for destroying the country’s environment are checked in the near future and afforestation of denuded areas is taken up on a massive scale, the harshness of the climatic conditions and soil erosion by wind and water will increase to such an extent that agriculture, which is the mainstay of our people, will gradually become impossible. Read More »

Q. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer: c) Both 1 and 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

G20 Common Framework Initiative

The G20 Common Framework is an initiative that has been endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. The Paris Club is a group of officials from major creditor countries whose role is to find coordinated and sustainable solutions to the payment difficulties experienced by debtor countries. The G20 is an international forum for governments and central bank governors from 19 countries and the European Union.

Addressing Debt Challenges in Low-Income Countries

The G20 Common Framework for Debt Treatments beyond the Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI) is designed to address the challenges faced by Low-Income Countries (LICs) with unsustainable debt. The framework aims to provide a structured approach to debt treatment for these countries, ensuring that all creditors (both public and private) work together to address the debt vulnerabilities so that the affected countries can work towards achieving economic stability and sustainable growth.

The Common Framework was established in response to the financial strains caused by the COVID-19 pandemic, which exacerbated the debt vulnerabilities of many developing countries. It seeks to provide a coordinated approach to debt restructuring, tailored to the needs of each eligible country, while ensuring fair burden-sharing among creditors and maintaining the debtor country’s access to financing.

Q. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.

Q. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: c) 1 and 3 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) & Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER)

1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee.

This statement is correct. The NEER is an index that measures the value of a country’s currency relative to a basket of other major currencies, weighted by their relative trade with the country. An increase in NEER means that the Indian rupee has appreciated in value compared to this basket of currencies, which implies that it takes fewer rupees to buy the same amount of foreign currency.

2. An increase in Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.

This statement is not necessarily correct. The REER adjusts the NEER for inflation differentials between India and its trading partners. An increase in REER suggests that the Indian currency has appreciated in real terms, which could make Indian exports more expensive and imports cheaper, potentially reducing trade competitiveness. However, it is also possible that an increase in REER reflects higher productivity or quality improvements in a country’s goods and services, which could enhance competitiveness. Therefore, an increase in REER does not unambiguously indicate an improvement in trade competitiveness.

3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

This statement is correct. If India experiences higher inflation than its trading partners, the NEER may not change much, but the REER will increase because the domestic currency’s real value is eroding due to higher prices. This divergence occurs because the REER is adjusted for inflation, while the NEER is not.

Given the explanations above, the correct answer is that statements 1 and 3 are correct, making the correct choice “1 and 3 only”.

Q. With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. Read More »