Q. With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct?
1. It is spread over two districts. 2. There is no human habitation inside the Park. 3. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer : c) 1 and 3 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Desert National Park
The Desert National Park is located in the Indian state of Rajasthan and is spread over two districts, Jaisalmer and Barmer. It covers an area of approximately 3162 square kilometers and represents the Thar Desert ecosystem.
Human Habitation
Contrary to popular belief, there are villages and human settlements within the boundaries of the Desert National Park. There are 73 villages and also settlements or Dhanis existing within the Park. Other tribes include Bishnois, Bhils, Minas, Lohars, Garasians, Sahariyas, and Rabaris. Their presence is a unique aspect of conservation in the park, as they play a role in protecting the flora and fauna.
Habitat for Great Indian Bustard
The Desert National Park is indeed one of the last strongholds for the critically endangered Great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps). The park provides a suitable habitat for these birds, including open plains, scrublands, and undisturbed areas where they can breed and feed. Conservation efforts within the park are crucial for the survival of this species, which faces threats from habitat loss and hunting outside protected areas.
Q. With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements:
1.At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government. 2.Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas. 3.Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer : b) 2 and 3 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Government Control of Fertilizer Prices
At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government. However, this statement is incorrect for India. The government plays a significant role in controlling the prices of chemical fertilizers through subsidies.
The government fixes the maximum retail prices (MRP) of several essential fertilizers, including urea, and provides subsidies to manufacturers to sell fertilizers at below-market rates to farmers. This is done to ensure that fertilizers are affordable for farmers, thereby promoting agricultural productivity.
Ammonia Production from Natural Gas
Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas. This statement is correct. Ammonia synthesis on an industrial scale primarily relies on the Haber-Bosch process, which uses natural gas (methane) as a primary feedstock.
Natural gas is reformed into hydrogen and carbon dioxide, and the hydrogen is then used with nitrogen to produce ammonia. This process is energy-intensive but is the most common method due to the availability of natural gas.
Sulphur as a By-Product of Oil Refineries
Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries. This statement is also correct. Sulphur is indeed a by-product of the oil refining process, as well as of coal processing and the smelting of mineral ores.
When these raw materials are processed, sulphur is removed and collected because it is considered an impurity. The collected sulphur is then purified and sold, among other uses, for the production of sulphuric acid, which is a key ingredient in the manufacture of phosphoric acid fertilizers.
Q. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.OMT is measured up to a depth of 26ºC isotherm which is 129 meters in the south-western Indian Ocean during January-March. 2.OMT collected during January-March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer : b) 2 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT)
Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT) is a significant parameter in the study of oceanography and climate science. It refers to the average temperature of the ocean up to a certain depth, which can provide insights into various climatic phenomena, including the prediction of monsoon patterns.
Statement 1
OMT is measured up to a depth of 26ºC isotherm which is 129 meters in the south-western Indian Ocean during January-March.
This statement is incorrect because the depth of the 26°C isotherm can vary significantly depending on geographical location and seasonal changes. Typically, the 26°C isotherm is found at depths ranging from 50 to 100 meters.
Statement 2
OMT collected during January-March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.
This statement is correct. The measurement of OMT during the January-March period is crucial for predicting the upcoming monsoon season’s rainfall patterns. OMT provides valuable information on the thermal energy stored in the ocean, which plays a significant role in influencing atmospheric circulation patterns and, consequently, the monsoon rainfall. A higher OMT can indicate a stronger monsoon, as it suggests more thermal energy available to fuel the monsoon system, while a lower OMT might indicate a weaker monsoon. Therefore, analyzing OMT during these months allows for an early assessment of the monsoon’s potential strength or weakness relative to the long-term mean, offering a valuable tool for agricultural planning, water resource management, and disaster preparedness.
Q. Consider the following minerals: 1. Bentonite 2. Chromite 3. Kyanite 4. Sillimanite
In India, Which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals ?
a) 1 and 2 only b) 4 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Answer : d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Minerals Classification in India
In India, minerals are classified into two main categories: major minerals and minor minerals. The classification is based on the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, which was last amended in 2015. The distinction between major and minor minerals is significant in terms of the regulatory and administrative framework governing their extraction and management.
1. Bentonite
Bentonite is primarily a type of clay mineral, known for its ability to swell and absorb water, making it useful in various industrial and health applications. It is generally considered a minor mineral in India.
2. Chromite
Chromite is an important ore of chromium, which is used in stainless steel, nichrome, and chrome plating. Given its economic importance, chromite is classified as a major mineral.
3. Kyanite
Kyanite is an aluminum silicate mineral used in the manufacture of refractory materials, capable of withstanding high temperatures. It is valuable for industries that require materials with high thermal resistance. Kyanite is classified as a major mineral in India due to its economic importance and specific industrial uses.
4. Sillimanite
Sillimanite is also an aluminum silicate mineral used in the manufacture of refractory materials, capable of withstanding high temperatures. It is valuable for industries that require materials with high thermal resistance. Sillimanite is classified as a major mineral in India due to its economic importance and specific industrial uses.
Q. What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture?
1.Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible. 2.Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible. 3.Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible. 4.Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible. Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1, 2 and 3 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 1, 3 and 4 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Answer : c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Fertigation: Combining Irrigation and Fertilization
Fertigation is an agricultural technique that combines irrigation with the application of fertilizers, soil amendments, or other water-soluble products into an irrigation system. This method efficiently and effectively distributes nutrients directly to plants’ root zones. The term “fertigation” is derived from a combination of “fertilization” and “irrigation.”
Key Components of Fertigation:
Irrigation System: Fertigation can be applied through various irrigation systems, including drip, sprinkler, or pivot systems. Drip irrigation is particularly effective for fertigation because it delivers water and nutrients directly to the root zone, minimizing waste and reducing the risk of leaf burn.
Fertilizer Injector: This device injects the liquid fertilizer into the irrigation water. The injectors can be of different types, such as venturi injectors, positive displacement pumps, or differential pressure tanks, depending on the system’s requirements.
Fertilizers and Nutrients: Water-soluble fertilizers are used in fertigation. These can be synthetic or organic, and the choice depends on the crop requirements, soil conditions, and the grower’s preferences.
Advantages of Fertigation:
Efficiency: Fertigation allows for precise application of nutrients, directly to the plant’s root zone, where they are most needed. This reduces the amount of fertilizer required and minimizes nutrient leaching.
Water Conservation: By combining irrigation with fertilization, fertigation can help conserve water. It ensures that water, along with nutrients, is only applied where needed, reducing waste.
Improved Crop Yield and Quality: The precise application of nutrients can lead to improved crop yields and quality, as plants receive the right amount of nutrients at the right time.
Flexibility: Fertigation systems can be adjusted easily to meet the changing nutritional requirements of crops throughout their growth stages.
Reduced Labor and Energy Costs: Fertigation reduces the need for manual labor for fertilizer application and can also lower energy costs associated with traditional fertilization methods.
Evaluating the Options for Fertigation
Option 1: Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible
Fertigation allows for the precise application of nutrients and amendments, including those that can adjust the pH (such as acid to lower alkalinity) of the irrigation water. This makes option 1 correct.
Option 2: Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible
Fertigation typically uses water-soluble fertilizers for efficient delivery through the irrigation system. Rock Phosphate, however, is not readily water-soluble and is typically not used in fertigation systems. This makes option 2 incorrect.
Option 3: Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible
Fertigation delivers nutrients directly to the root zone, increasing the efficiency of nutrient uptake by plants. This makes option 3 correct.
Option 4: Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible
By applying nutrients directly to the root zone in precise amounts, fertigation reduces the risk of nutrient leaching beyond the root zone. This makes option 4 correct.
Q. Who among the following rulers advised his subjects through this inscription? “Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely.”
a) Ashoka b) Samundragupta c) Harshavardhana d) Krishanadeva Raya Correct Answer : a) Ashoka
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Ashoka the Great: Emperor of the Maurya Dynasty
Ashoka the Great was an emperor of the Maurya Dynasty who ruled almost the entire Indian subcontinent from c. 268 to 232 BCE. He is remembered for his conversion to Buddhism after witnessing the mass deaths of the Kalinga War, which he himself had waged out of a desire for conquest. Ashoka’s remorse after the Kalinga War led him to adopt Buddhism and spread its teachings. He is known for his efforts to propagate the Buddhist philosophy and moral values through inscriptions on pillars and rocks across his empire. These inscriptions are known as the Edicts of Ashoka.
Ashoka’s Policy of Religious Tolerance
The inscription mentioned in the question reflects Ashoka’s policy of religious tolerance and his desire to promote harmony among different religious sects within his empire. It underscores the importance of respecting all religions and not elevating one’s own religion at the expense of others. This approach was revolutionary at the time and contributed to a period of peace and prosperity in his realm.
Significance of Ashoka’s Edicts
Ashoka’s edicts are a significant source of historical information about his reign and philosophy. They reveal his concerns for governance, the welfare of his subjects, justice, and the spread of Buddhism. The message of non-violence, respect for all living beings, and tolerance of all religions are recurrent themes in these inscriptions.
Q. With reference to the history of India, the terms ‘kulyavapa’ and ‘dronavapa’ denote
a) measurement of land b) coins of different monetary value c) classification of urban land d) religious rituals Correct Answer : a) measurement of land
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Kulyavapa
This term is associated with the measurement of land in terms of the amount of seed required to sow the land. Specifically, ‘kulyavapa’ refers to the amount of land that could be sown with a ‘kulya’ of seeds. A ‘kulya’ is a specific measure of volume for seeds, and thus ‘kulyavapa’ essentially denotes a unit of area based on the seed sowing capacity.
Dronavapa
Similar to ‘kulyavapa’, ‘dronavapa’ is another term related to land measurement based on the capacity of seed required for sowing. It refers to the amount of land that could be sown with a ‘drona’ of seeds. A ‘drona’ is another traditional Indian measure of volume, and thus ‘dronavapa’ represents a unit of area determined by the amount of seed (measured in ‘dronas’) that would be used to sow that area.
Q. The Vital-Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal to have the untouchable people as its target audience was published by
a) Gopal Baba Walangkar b) Jyotiba Phule c) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi d) Bhimrao Ranji Ambedkar Correct Answer : a) Gopal Baba Walangkar
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Vital-Vidhvansak: Gopal Baba Walangkar
The Vital-Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal specifically aimed at the untouchable people, was published by Gopal Baba Walangkar. This publication was a significant step towards addressing the issues and concerns of the untouchable community in India, providing them with a platform to voice their struggles and aspirations during a time when social stratifications were deeply entrenched in Indian society.
Gopal Baba Walangkar is remembered for his efforts in advocating for the rights of the marginalized and for his role in the early movements against caste discrimination.
Q. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the following?
1.Invitation to Congress to participate in the Round Table Conference 2.Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement 3.Acceptance of Gandhiji’s suggestion for enquiry into police excesses 4.Release of only those prisoners who were not charged with violence Select the correct answer using the code given below: a) 1 only b) 1, 2 and 4 only c) 3 only d) 2, 3 and 4 only Correct Answer : b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Gandhi-Irwin Pact
The Gandhi-Irwin Pact, signed on March 5, 1931, was a political agreement between Mahatma Gandhi, the leader of the Indian National Congress, and Lord Irwin, the Viceroy of India. The pact was a significant step in the Indian independence movement, marking the end of the Civil Disobedience Movement and setting the stage for further negotiations on India’s future.
Key Provisions of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact
1. Invitation to Congress to participate in the Round Table Conference: This was one of the main outcomes of the pact. The British Government agreed to invite the Indian National Congress to attend the Second Round Table Conference in London as a representative of the Indian people.
2. Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement: The British Government agreed to withdraw all ordinances and end prosecutions that had been enacted to curb the civil disobedience movement. This was a significant concession, as it meant the cessation of legal actions against thousands of nationalists.
3. Acceptance of Gandhiji’s suggestion for enquiry into police excesses: While the pact did not explicitly include a clause for an enquiry into police excesses, Gandhi’s concerns about the treatment of protesters and the need for such an enquiry were acknowledged during the discussions. However, this was not a formal part of the agreement.
4. Release of only those prisoners who were not charged with violence: The British Government agreed to release all political prisoners who had not engaged in violence during the Civil Disobedience Movement. This was a major demand from Gandhi and the Indian National Congress, although it did not extend to prisoners charged with violent activities.
Q. With reference to the book ‘Desher Katha’ written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom struggle, consider the following statements:
1.It warned against the Colonial State’s hypnotic conquest of the mind. 2.It inspired the performance of swadeshi street plays and folk songs. 3.The use of ‘desh’ by Deuskar was in the specific context of the region of Bengal. Which of the statements given above are correct? a) 1 and 2 only b) 2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct Answer : 1 and 2 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
1. It warned against the Colonial State’s hypnotic conquest of the mind.
This statement is correct. Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar’s ‘Desher Katha’ was indeed a critique of British colonial rule in India, and among its themes was a warning against the colonial state’s efforts to dominate and control the minds of the Indian people. The book aimed to awaken Indian consciousness and inspire resistance against British rule.
2. It inspired the performance of swadeshi street plays and folk songs.
This statement is also correct. ‘Desher Katha’ was part of the broader Swadeshi Movement, which encouraged the boycott of British goods and the revival of indigenous products and traditions. The book’s nationalist fervor and call for self-reliance resonated with many, inspiring not just political activism but also cultural expressions of resistance, such as swadeshi street plays and folk songs that promoted nationalistic themes.
3. The use of ‘desh’ by Deuskar was in the specific context of the region of Bengal.
This statement is not entirely accurate. While ‘Desher Katha’ did have a significant impact in Bengal, given that Deuskar was active in the region and the book was written in Bengali, its message was not limited to Bengal alone. The use of ‘desh’ (country) was meant to invoke a sense of national identity and unity among all Indians against the British colonial rule, not just those in Bengal. Therefore, the context of ‘desh’ in Deuskar’s work transcends regional boundaries and aims at a pan-Indian audience.