Q. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth d) An agency or the implementation of public policy Correct Answer : d) An agency or the implementation of public policy
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Bureaucracy: An agency for implementation of public policy
This is the most appropriate characteristic of bureaucracy, especially in the context of India. The Indian bureaucracy, comprising the civil services, is fundamentally designed to execute the laws and policies formulated by the government. It acts as the administrative arm of the government, ensuring that public policies are implemented efficiently and effectively across the country. Bureaucrats are responsible for translating the vision of the elected government into tangible outcomes for the citizens, making this option the correct answer.
Q. One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
a) the final goal of a stateless society b) class struggle c) abolition of private property d) economic determinism Correct Answer : a) the final goal of a stateless society
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Gandhism
Mahatma Gandhi’s philosophy emphasizes non-violence, truth, and individual and community self-reliance. Gandhi believed in a form of society where social functions are carried out without the need for a centralized state apparatus. His vision included a society organized around small, self-sufficient communities (Sarvodaya), operating on principles of trust, mutual aid, and non-violence. Gandhi’s idea of a stateless society is not explicitly articulated as an end goal in the same way as in Marxism, but his emphasis on decentralization and self-governance implies a minimal role for the state.
Marxism
Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels, on the other hand, theorized that the state is a tool for class oppression, existing to serve the interests of the ruling class. In their view, the state would become obsolete in the final stage of human society, communism, where class distinctions have been abolished, and the means of production are communally owned. The Marxist vision of a stateless society is one where the conditions that necessitate the state’s existence—class antagonisms and the need for coercion to maintain the status quo—have been eliminated.
1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy. 2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? a) 1 only b) 2 only c) Both 1 and 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2 Correct Answer : d) Neither 1 nor 2
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
The Basic Structure of the Constitution of India
The Constitution of India does not explicitly define its ‘basic structure’. The concept of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution was evolved by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1973.
In this case, the Supreme Court ruled that while the Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter the basic structure of the Constitution. The Court did not provide an exhaustive list of features constituting the basic structure but mentioned a few examples such as federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy, among others.
Therefore, the statement that the Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy is incorrect because it is the interpretation of the Supreme Court, not a definition provided by the Constitution itself.
Judicial Review in the Indian Constitution
The term “judicial review” itself is not explicitly mentioned in the text of the Indian Constitution. However, the power of judicial review is implicitly enshrined within various provisions of the Constitution, making it a fundamental aspect of the Indian legal system.
Q. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State?
a) Directive Principles of State Policy b) Fundamental Rights c) Preamble d) Seventh Schedule Correct Answer : a) Directive Principles of State Policy
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Directive Principles of State Policy
The Directive Principles of State Policy are guidelines or principles given to the federal institutes governing the State of India, aiming to create social and economic conditions under which the citizens can lead a good life. They are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51.
The Directive Principles of State Policy are not justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by any court, but the principles laid down therein are considered fundamental in the governance of the country. The idea is for the State to apply these principles in making laws to establish a just society in the country. The principles are aimed at ensuring social and economic democracy and pushing the country towards the goal of a welfare state.
Concept of a welfare state
The concept of a welfare state is essentially one in which the state plays a key role in the protection and promotion of the economic and social well-being of its citizens. It is based on the principles of equality of opportunity, equitable distribution of wealth, and public responsibility for those unable to avail themselves of the minimal provisions for a good life. The Directive Principles, by advocating for measures such as the right to work, to education, and to public assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness, and disablement, among others, clearly reflect the ideal of a welfare state.
Therefore, the Directive Principles of State Policy (a) is the part of the Constitution of India that declares the ideal of a Welfare State, guiding the State in making laws and policies towards achieving this goal.
Q. A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which
a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term
Correct Answer : b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Parliamentary System of Government
In a parliamentary system of government, the executive branch derives its democratic legitimacy from its ability to command the confidence of the legislative branch, typically a parliament, and is also held accountable to that parliament. In such a system, the head of state is usually a different figure from the head of government, reflecting a distinction between the ceremonial representation of the state at home and abroad (often fulfilled by a president or monarch) and the political leadership of the government (typically filled by a prime minister, premier, or chancellor).
Key Features of a Parliamentary System
The key features that define a parliamentary system include:
Executive-Legislative Interdependence: Unlike in a presidential system, where the executive and legislative branches are separate and coequal, in a parliamentary system, the executive is dependent on the direct or indirect support of the parliament. This support is often manifested through a vote of confidence.
Responsibility to Parliament: The government (executive) is responsible to the parliament. This means that the government must retain the confidence of the majority of the parliament to stay in power. If the parliament passes a vote of no confidence, or in some cases fails to pass a key piece of government legislation (such as the budget), the government must either resign or a general election is called.
Removal by Parliament: As a direct consequence of being responsible to the parliament, the government can be removed by it. This is typically done through a formal vote of no confidence. If the government loses this vote, it must either resign or seek a dissolution of parliament and call for a general election.
The other options provided do not accurately describe a parliamentary system:
a) Not all political parties in the parliament are represented in the government. Typically, the government is formed by the majority party or a coalition of parties that hold a majority.
c) While the government is elected by the people in a general sense (since the members of parliament are elected and they in turn support the government), the direct removal of the government by the people is not a feature of a parliamentary system. Instead, the government’s continuation in power is subject to parliamentary confidence.
d) In a parliamentary system, the government can indeed be removed by the parliament before the completion of a fixed term, contrary to this statement. This is a fundamental aspect of parliamentary accountability and flexibility.
Therefore, option b) accurately captures the essence of a parliamentary system’s mechanism for government accountability and potential removal.
Q. With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct?
VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780 nm.
VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication.
VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth.
VLC has no electromagnetic interference.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer – (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Visible Light Communication (VLC)
Visible Light Communication (VLC) is a data communication variant which uses visible light between 400 and 800 nm.
1. VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780 nm.
This statement is accurate because the typical range for VLC is between 400 and 800 nm, which falls within the visible spectrum. However, it’s close to the actual range VLC operates in, so the intent behind the statement seems to align with VLC’s operational wavelengths.
2. VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication.
This statement is incorrect. VLC is typically used for short-range communication applications. It is not known for long-range capabilities, especially when compared to other optical wireless communications like Free Space Optics (FSO), which can cover much longer distances.
3. VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth.
This statement is correct. VLC can indeed transmit data at higher speeds compared to Bluetooth. VLC technology has the potential to achieve data rates in the range of gigabits per second (Gbps), which is significantly higher than what current Bluetooth technology can offer.
4. VLC has no electromagnetic interference.
This statement is generally considered correct. One of the advantages of VLC is that it does not suffer from electromagnetic interference in the same way that radio-based communication systems do. This makes VLC particularly useful in environments where electromagnetic interference is a concern, such as in hospitals or on airplanes.
Given the analysis above, the correct answer would be:
Q. With reference to “Blockchain Technology”, consider the following statements:
It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user controls.
The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only.
Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer – (d) 1 and 3 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Blockchain Technology
Blockchain technology is a decentralized ledger that records all transactions across a network. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user controls. This high level of transparency allows for trust and accountability in transactions.
Expanding Beyond Cryptocurrency
Contrary to popular belief, blockchain technology is not limited to cryptocurrency. While it was initially developed to support Bitcoin, its applications have expanded far beyond that. Blockchain can be used for various purposes such as supply chain management, voting systems, identity verification, and more. Its core features of decentralization, transparency, and immutability make it suitable for a wide range of applications.
Permissionless Development
One of the key advantages of blockchain technology, especially in public blockchains like Ethereum, is the permissionless nature of its development environment. Applications that depend on the basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission. This fosters innovation and allows developers to create decentralized applications (DApps) that leverage the blockchain’s features.
Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct, making (d) 1 and 3 only the right choice.
Q. In the context of recent advances of human reproductive technology, “Pronuclear Transfer” is used for
(a) fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm (b) genetic modification of sperm producing cells (c) development of stem cells into functional embryos (d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring
Correct Answer – (d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
Pronuclear Transfer: Preventing Transmission of Mitochondrial Diseases
Pronuclear transfer is a technique used in the context of mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT). This innovative approach is designed to prevent the transmission of mitochondrial diseases from mother to child. Mitochondrial diseases are a group of disorders caused by dysfunctional mitochondria, the energy-producing structures within cells. These diseases are maternally inherited because the mitochondria in the offspring come exclusively from the mother’s egg.
The Process of Pronuclear Transfer
The process of pronuclear transfer involves fertilizing both the donor’s egg and the mother’s egg with the father’s sperm. Before these fertilized eggs begin the process of dividing into early-stage embryos, each has a pronucleus containing the genetic material from the mother and the father. In pronuclear transfer, the pronuclei from the parents’ fertilized egg are transferred into the donor egg, which has had its own pronuclei removed but still contains healthy mitochondria. This way, the resulting embryo has nuclear DNA from its parents but mitochondrial DNA from the donor, effectively bypassing the risk of inheriting mitochondrial diseases.
Advancements in Reproductive Technology
This technique represents a significant advance in reproductive technology, offering hope to families affected by mitochondrial disorders. It allows for the birth of genetically related children to the intended parents, with the critical difference being the source of healthy mitochondria.
Q. With reference to the scholars/litterateurs of ancient India, consider the following statements:
Panini is associated with Pushyamitra
Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana
Kalidasa is associated with Chandra Gupta-II
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer – (c) 3 only
Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper
Explanation:
1. Panini is not associated with Pushyamitra:
This statement is incorrect. Panini, the ancient Indian scholar, and the author of the Ashtadhyayi, a foundational text on Sanskrit grammar, is not associated with Pushyamitra. Panini is believed to have lived around the 5th century BCE, much earlier than Pushyamitra Shunga, who founded the Shunga Empire after the Mauryan dynasty around 185 BCE.
2. Amarasimha is not associated with Harshavardhana:
This statement is also incorrect. Amarasimha is traditionally considered to be one of the nine gems (Navaratnas) at the court of the legendary king Vikramaditya of Ujjain, not Harshavardhana.
3. Kalidasa is associated with Chandra Gupta-II:
This statement is correct. Kalidasa, one of the greatest Sanskrit poets and dramatists, is traditionally associated with the court of Chandragupta II, also known as Vikramaditya. Chandragupta II ruled the Gupta Empire from approximately 380 CE to 415 CE. Kalidasa’s works, including plays like “Shakuntala” and poems like “Meghaduta,” are considered classics of Sanskrit literature and reflect the cultural zenith of the Gupta period.