Answer: c) Only 1

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: “In this meeting, Indonesia agreed to enhance collaboration in the areas of defence, industry, maritime security, and multilateral cooperation.”

– This statement is correct. During the 7th India-Indonesia Joint Defence Cooperation Committee (JDCC) meeting, both sides agreed to enhance collaboration in the areas of defence industry, maritime security, and multilateral cooperation.

2. Statement 2: “This meeting was held in Jakarta on May 5, 2024.”

– This statement is incorrect. The meeting was held in New Delhi on May 3, 2024.  It was not held in Jakarta, nor was it on May 5, 2024.

Conclusion: Since only Statement 1 is correct, the correct answer is c) Only 1.

Correct Answer: b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:

1. Primary Contributors to Acid Rain:

– Sulfur Dioxide (SO₂):

– Sources: Combustion of fossil fuels (like coal and oil), volcanic eruptions, and certain industrial processes.
– Chemical Reaction: SO₂ reacts with water vapor in the atmosphere to form sulfuric acid (H₂SO₄).

– Nitrogen Oxides (NOₓ), Mainly Nitrogen Dioxide (NO₂):

– Sources: Vehicle emissions, power plants, and industrial activities.
– Chemical Reaction: NO₂ reacts with water to produce nitric acid (HNO₃).

2. Carbon Dioxide (CO₂) and Its Role:

– Sources: Respiration, combustion of carbon-based fuels, deforestation, and various industrial activities.
– Chemical Reaction: CO₂ dissolves in water to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃).
– Impact: While carbonic acid does contribute to the acidity of rainwater, it is a weak acid and has a negligible effect on the overall acidity compared to sulfuric and nitric acids. Consequently, CO₂ is not considered a primary cause of acid rain.

Analyzing the Given Statements

1. Assertion (A): “CO₂, SO₂, and NO₂ gases get dissolved in rainwater and produce acid rain.”

– Accuracy: Incorrect. While SO₂ and NO₂ are significant contributors to acid rain, CO₂ plays a minor role and is not a primary cause.

2. Reason (R): “Atmospheric air is polluted due to high concentration of gases like carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen.”

– Accuracy: Correct. The statement accurately identifies CO₂, SO₂, and NOₓ (including NO₂) as major pollutants that contribute to various environmental issues, including pollution and acid rain.

Correct Answer: d) Altering the name of a State – Power of a State Legislature

Explanation:

a) Equality before Law – Guaranteed to both citizens and non-citizens

This is correct. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees “Equality before the law” and “Equal protection of the laws” to all persons within the territory of India, irrespective of whether they are citizens or non-citizens.

b) Equality of opportunity in public employment – Guaranteed only to Indian citizens

This is correct. Article 16 of the Indian Constitution provides for equality of opportunity in matters of public employment, but it is specifically guaranteed only to Indian citizens.

c) Creating a new State – Power of Parliament

This is correct. Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to create a new state by passing a law. The process involves consultation with the concerned State Legislature, but the final authority lies with the Parliament.

d) Altering the name of a State – Power of a State Legislature

This is incorrect. The power to alter the name of a state lies with the Parliament, not the State Legislature. As per Article 3, the Parliament can alter the name of a state through legislation, after consulting the concerned State Legislature. However, the consultation is not binding on Parliament.

Conclusion: Option d is not correctly matched, making it the correct answer.

Correct Answer: a) 2 and 3

Explanation:

The “Right against Exploitation” is enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution. It aims to protect individuals from exploitation in various forms. Let us analyze the options:

1. Abolition of untouchability: This is covered under Article 17, which is part of the “Right to Equality,” not the “Right against Exploitation.” Hence, this is not relevant here.

2. Prohibition of human trafficking and forced labour: This is explicitly mentioned under Article 23, which prohibits human trafficking, begar (forced labour), and other similar forms of exploitation. This is part of the “Right against Exploitation.”

3. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines: This is covered under Article 24, which prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories, mines, or any other hazardous employment. This is also part of the “Right against Exploitation.”

4. Protection of interests of minorities: This is covered under Articles 29 and 30, which are part of the “Cultural and Educational Rights,” not the “Right against Exploitation.”

Conclusion: Only statements 2 and 3 are related to the “Right against Exploitation.” Therefore, the correct answer is a) 2 and 3.

Correct Answer: d) Mouse, Keyboard, Scanner

Explanation:

Input devices are hardware components that allow users to provide data and control signals to a computer. Let us analyze the options:

1. Mouse: An input device used to control the pointer on the screen.

2. Keyboard: An input device used to type text and provide commands to the computer.

3. Scanner: An input device used to convert physical documents or images into digital format.

Now, let us examine the other options:

– Option a) Mouse, Keyboard, Printer: A printer is an output device, as it is used to produce physical copies of digital documents.

– Option b) Mouse, Keyboard, Projector: A projector is an output device, as it displays digital content on a larger screen or surface.

– Option c) Mouse, Keyboard, Monitor: A monitor is an output device, as it displays visual output from the computer.

The correct answer is: b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation:

– Assertion (A): “According to the Constitution of India, the same person cannot function as the Governor of two or more States at the same time.”

This statement is false. The Constitution of India does not prohibit the same person from being appointed as the Governor of two or more states simultaneously. In fact, it is a common practice in India for one person to serve as the Governor of multiple states, especially to reduce administrative costs or when the workload is manageable.

– Reason (R): “Article 153 of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be a Governor for each State.”

This statement is true. Article 153 of the Indian Constitution indeed states that “There shall be a Governor for each State.” However, it does not mean that each state must have a separate individual as its Governor. The provision allows for the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more states.

Thus, while the Reason (R) is true, it does not support the Assertion (A), which is false. Hence, the correct answer is b).

Correct Answer: b) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property

Explanation:

Article 19 of the Indian Constitution guarantees certain fundamental freedoms to the citizens of India. These freedoms are:

1. Freedom of speech and expression (Article 19(1)(a))

2. Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms (Article 19(1)(b))

3. Freedom to form associations or unions (Article 19(1)(c))

4. Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India (Article 19(1)(d))

5. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India (Article 19(1)(e))

6. Freedom to practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade, or business (Article 19(1)(g))

However, the freedom to own, acquire, and dispose of property is not included under Article 19. Initially, the right to property was a fundamental right under Article 31, but it was removed as a fundamental right by the 44th Amendment Act, 1978. It is now a legal right under Article 300A of the Constitution.

Thus, the correct answer is b) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property, as it is no longer a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 19.

Correct Answer: a) 1 and 2

Explanation:

Goal 4 of the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) focuses on ensuring “inclusive and equitable quality education and promoting lifelong learning opportunities for all.” To achieve this goal, the following measures are essential:

1. Making education free and compulsory:

This is a fundamental step to ensure that all children, regardless of their socio-economic background, have access to education. Free and compulsory education removes financial barriers and ensures inclusivity.

2. Improving basic school infrastructure and embracing digital transformation:

Quality education requires adequate infrastructure such as classrooms, sanitation facilities, and access to technology. Digital transformation is particularly important in modern education to bridge the digital divide and provide access to online learning resources.

3. Expansion of agricultural programmes:

While agricultural programmes are important for food security and rural development, they are not directly related to achieving Goal 4, which is focused on education.

4. Increasing investment in technology:

While technology is important, it is a subset of improving school infrastructure and digital transformation. It is not a standalone measure for achieving Goal 4.

Thus, the correct measures to achieve Goal 4 are 1 and 2, making option a) 1 and 2 the correct answer.

Correct Answer: a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation:

– Assertion (A): Development is indeed defined as improving living standards and welfare. This is a widely accepted understanding of development, which goes beyond mere economic growth to include factors like health, education, equality, and overall well-being.

– Reason (R): Growth in per capita income alone is not a sufficient measure of development. While per capita income is an important economic indicator, it does not capture the distribution of income, access to basic services, or quality of life. For example, a country may have high per capita income but still suffer from inequality, poor healthcare, or lack of education.

– Relationship between A and R: The reason (R) explains why development is defined in broader terms (as stated in A). Since per capita income alone cannot fully measure development, the concept of development has been expanded to include improvements in living standards and welfare.

Thus, both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) provides the correct explanation for (A).

Correct Answer: a) 2 4 3 1.

Explanation:

A. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana (PMSYM):

This scheme is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme for unorganized workers. The contribution varies between ₹55 to ₹200 per month, depending on the entry age of the beneficiary.

B. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana (PMJJBY):

This is a life insurance scheme offering coverage for death due to any cause. The premium is ₹436 per year.

C. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY):

This scheme provides accident insurance coverage. The premium is ₹20 per year.

D. Atal Pension Yojana (APY):

APY is a pension scheme targeted at unorganized sector workers. The contribution amount varies based on the desired pension amount at retirement and the age at which the subscriber joins the scheme. Therefore, the contribution is based on the beneficiary’s choice.

Therefore, the correct code is: a) 2 4 3 1.