Correct Answer: b) 4, 3, 1, 2

Explanation:

1. Linlithgow August Offer: The August Offer was announced by Lord Linlithgow, the Viceroy of India, on August 8, 1940. It was a proposal to secure Indian cooperation during World War II by promising dominion status after the war.

2. Cripps Mission arrival in India: The Cripps Mission, led by Sir Stafford Cripps, arrived in India in March 1942. It was an attempt by the British government to gain Indian support for the war effort by offering a post-war dominion status and a constituent assembly.

3. Ramgarh Congress Session: The Ramgarh Session of the Indian National Congress was held in March 1940. This session was significant as it reiterated the demand for complete independence and rejected any compromise with British rule.

4. Resignation letters of Congress Ministers: Congress Ministers resigned from their positions in October-November 1939. This was in protest against the British decision to involve India in World War II without consulting Indian leaders.

Correct Answer: b) 4, 3, 1, 2

Correct Answer: c) 3 2 1 4

Explanation:

1. Hindu Polity: This book was written by K.P. Jayaswal. It is a significant work on ancient Indian political thought and governance.

2. The Wonder That Was India: This book was authored by A.L. Basham. It is a comprehensive account of Indian culture, history, and civilization.

3. An Introduction to the Study of Indian History: This book was written by D.D. Kosambi, who is known for his Marxist approach to Indian history.

4. The Early History of India: This book was authored by Vincent Arthur Smith, a British historian who wrote extensively on ancient Indian history.

The correct code is c) 3 2 1 4

The correct answer is: c) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation:

1. Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India (1951): This was the first case where the Supreme Court dealt with the question of whether the Parliament has the power to amend fundamental rights under Article 368 of the Constitution. The Court upheld the Parliament’s power to amend fundamental rights.

2. Sajjan Singh vs. State of Rajasthan (1965): In this case, the Supreme Court reaffirmed its decision in Shankari Prasad and held that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution, including fundamental rights.

3. Golaknath vs. State of Punjab (1967): This case marked a significant shift. The Supreme Court ruled that Parliament could not amend fundamental rights, declaring them to be beyond the scope of amendment under Article 368.

4. Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala (1973): This was a landmark judgment where the Supreme Court introduced the “Basic Structure Doctrine.” The Court held that while Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter its basic structure.

Thus, the correct chronological sequence is c) 1, 2, 3, 4

The correct answer is: d) 3 1 4 2

Explanation:

Let us match each amendment with its year of implementation:

1. 42nd Amendment (1976): Known as the “Mini-Constitution,” it was enacted during the Emergency period under Indira Gandhi’s government. It brought significant changes to the Constitution, including the addition of the words “Socialist,” “Secular,” and “Integrity” to the Preamble.

2. 52nd Amendment (1985): This amendment introduced the Anti-Defection Law, which aimed to curb political defections by disqualifying members of Parliament and state legislatures who defected from their parties.

3. 86th Amendment (2002): This amendment made education a fundamental right for children aged 6 to 14 years by inserting Article 21A into the Constitution.

4. 96th Amendment (2011): This amendment changed the official name of the language “Oriya” to “Odia” in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.

Hence, the correct code is d) 3 1 4 2.

Correct Answer: c) 4 3 1 2

Explanation:

1. Cooperative Federalism: This concept is associated with Granville Austin, who described the Indian federal system as one of “cooperative federalism,” emphasizing collaboration between the center and the states.

2. Bargaining Federalism: This term is linked to Morris-Jones, who analyzed the bargaining nature of Indian federalism, where states negotiate with the center for resources and powers.

3. Quasi Federalism: This concept is attributed to K.C. Wheare, who described India as a “quasi-federal” system because it has features of both federal and unitary systems.

4. Federalism with Centralising Tendency: This idea is associated with Ivor Jennings, who highlighted the centralizing tendencies in India’s federal structure, where the center holds significant power over the states.

The correct code is c) 4 3 1 2.

The correct answer is: d) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation:

The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 provides for the establishment of the Lokpal at the central level to inquire into allegations of corruption against public functionaries. The appointment of the Lokpal is done by the President of India based on the recommendation of a Selection Committee.

The Selection Committee consists of the following members:

1. Prime Minister (Chairperson)

2. Speaker of the Lok Sabha

3. Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

4. Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by the Chief Justice

5. An eminent jurist recommended by the other members of the Selection Committee.

Correct Answer: d) Nyaya Panchayat

Explanation:

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, established in 1957, recommended a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj in India, which consists of:

– Gram Panchayat at the village level

– Panchayat Samiti at the block level

– Zila Panchayat (often referred to as Zila Parishad) at the district level

The Nyaya Panchayat is not part of this three-tier system. Instead, it serves as a judicial body that can be established to resolve disputes at the village level but was not included in the original framework recommended by the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.

Thus, the correct answer is: d) Nyaya Panchayat

Correct Answer: b) 2 1 3 4

Explanation:

• A. Maharashtra: Ranked 2nd with a total expenditure of ₹4.39 lakh crore.
• B. Uttar Pradesh: Ranked 1st with a total expenditure of ₹5.31 lakh crore.
• C. Tamil Nadu: Ranked 3rd with a total expenditure of ₹2.84 lakh crore.
• D. Karnataka: Ranked 4th with a total expenditure of ₹2.76 lakh crore.

Logic – Question was asked UP PCS. UP had to be first.😛 Maharashtra is biggest economy in India

The correct answer is: d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Explanation:

– Assertion (A): Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with the declaration of an emergency.

– This statement is true. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution provides for the proclamation of a National Emergency in case of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion. It allows the President of India to declare an emergency if the security of India or any part of its territory is threatened.

– Reason (R): An emergency may take place at any time.

– This statement is false. An emergency cannot “take place” on its own at any time. It must be formally declared by the President of India under specific circumstances as outlined in the Constitution (e.g., war, external aggression, or armed rebellion for National Emergency under Article 352). The process is deliberate and requires a formal proclamation.

Thus, while the assertion is correct, the reason is incorrect.

Correct Answer: a) 2 and 3

Explanation:

1. e-Governance reduces the transparency of Government:

This statement is incorrect. e-Governance is designed to increase transparency by making government processes more accessible and open to citizens. For example, online portals for public services allow citizens to track applications, access information, and reduce corruption.

2. e-Governance reduces the cost of Government:

This statement is correct. By digitizing processes, e-Governance reduces paperwork, manual labor, and inefficiencies, leading to cost savings for the government. For instance, online tax filing systems reduce administrative costs.

3. e-Governance increases citizens’ input into Government:

This statement is correct. e-Governance enables citizens to participate more actively in governance through online feedback mechanisms, grievance redressal systems, and participatory platforms.

4. e-Governance increases bureaucratic red-tapism:

This statement is incorrect. e-Governance aims to reduce bureaucratic red-tapism by streamlining processes and minimizing the need for physical interactions with government offices. Automation and digitization reduce delays caused by excessive paperwork and manual approvals.

The correct statements are 2 and 3, making option a) 2 and 3 the right answer.