Prelims Solution

Q37. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

Q37. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

a. Australia
b. Canada
c. Israel
d. Japan

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer – d. Japan

Satellite Navigation System

Japan has its own Satellite Navigation System called the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS). The QZSS is a regional satellite system that provides positioning, navigation, and timing services to the Asia-Oceania region, with a focus on Japan and its surrounding areas. The system aims to improve the accuracy and reliability of GPS-based services by complementing the existing GPS constellation.

Q37. Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? Read More »

Q36. Consider the following pairs: Object in space Description 1 Cepheids Giant clouds of dust and gas in space 2. Nebulae Stars which brighten and dim periodically 3. Pulsars

Q36. Consider the following pairs:
Object in space – Description

1. Cepheids – Giant clouds of dust and gas in space
2. Nebulae – Stars which brighten and dim periodically
3. Pulsars – Neutron stars that, are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer – a. Only One

Cepheids – Stars Which Brighten and Dim Periodically

  • Cepheids are a type of variable star that exhibit a regular pattern of brightening and dimming. They are used as distance indicators in astronomy because their period of variation is directly related to their luminosity.

Nebulae – Giant Clouds of Dust and Gas in Space

  • Nebulae are indeed giant clouds of dust and gas in space. They are the birthplaces of stars, as the dust and gas within them come together under the force of gravity to form new stars.

Pulsars – Neutron Stars That Are Formed When Massive Stars Run Out of Fuel and Collapse

  • Pulsars are a type of neutron star that emit beams of electromagnetic radiation out of their magnetic poles. As the star rotates, these beams sweep across the sky, creating a pulsing effect when observed from Earth. They are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse, so this pair is correctly matched.

Q36. Consider the following pairs: Object in space Description 1 Cepheids Giant clouds of dust and gas in space 2. Nebulae Stars which brighten and dim periodically 3. Pulsars Read More »

Q35. Which reference to the role of biofilter in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statement

Q35. Which reference to the role of biofilter in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statement

1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste in nitrate.
3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.

How many of the statements given above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer – b Only Two

Role of Biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture Systems

In a Recirculating Aquaculture System (RAS), biofilters are crucial for maintaining water quality and providing effective waste treatment. These systems rely on biofilters for two primary functions:

1. Removing Uneaten Fish Feed

Biofilters are instrumental in removing uneaten fish feed and other suspended solids from the water. This function is vital to prevent the accumulation of waste materials in the system, which can lead to poor water quality and adversely affect fish health.

2. Converting Ammonia to Nitrate

Fish waste typically contains ammonia, which is toxic to fish in high concentrations. Biofilters utilize beneficial bacteria to convert ammonia into nitrite and then into nitrate through a process known as nitrification. Nitrate, being less harmful to fish, can be subsequently removed from the system via water exchange or denitrification.

Limitation of Biofilters in Phosphorus Management

While biofilters effectively convert harmful compounds like ammonia into less harmful ones like nitrate, they do not increase phosphorus levels in the water. Phosphorus is an essential nutrient for fish growth, but excess phosphorus can lead to issues such as algal blooms. Therefore, biofilters help maintain overall water quality but do not directly contribute to phosphorus nutrient levels.

So, Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect. Therefore, the answer is b. Only two.

Source -> 06_Ras Booklet Eng.pdf (nfdb.gov.in)

Backyard_Recirculation_Aquaculture_System.pdf (dof.gov.in)

Recirculating aquaculture system – Wikipedia

Q35. Which reference to the role of biofilter in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statement Read More »

Q33. Consider the following statements: 1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. 2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.

Q33. Consider the following statements:

1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer – a. 1 only

Carbon fibres

Statement 1: Correct. Carbon fibres are extensively utilized in the manufacturing of components for automobiles and aircrafts due to their high strength-to-weight ratio, corrosion resistance, and high-temperature tolerance. These attributes make carbon fibres highly beneficial for reducing weight and improving fuel efficiency.

Statement 2: Incorrect. While recycling carbon fibres presents challenges due to their high strength and the complexity of breaking them down, it is indeed feasible. Various methods, such as pyrolysis and solvolysis, have been developed for the effective recovery and reuse of carbon fibres from composite waste.

Q33. Consider the following statements: 1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. 2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. Read More »

Q32. Consider the following statements in the context of intervention being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:

Q32. Consider the following statements in the context of intervention being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:

1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child birth.
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer – C

First Statement is Incorrect

  1. Prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation in all six target age groups
  2. Intensified year-round Behaviour Change Communication (BCC) Campaign for:(a) improving compliance to Iron Folic Acid supplementation and deworming, (b) enhancing appropriate infant and young child feeding practices, (c) encouraging increase in intake of iron-rich food through diet diversity/quantity/frequency and/or fortified foods with focus on harnessing locally available resources, and (d) ensuring delayed cord clamping after delivery (by 3 minutes) in health facilities
  3. Testing and treatment of anaemia, using digital methods and point of care treatment, with special focus on pregnant women and school-going adolescents
  4. Addressing non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis
  5. Management of severe anaemia in pregnant women undertaken by administration of IV Iron Sucrose/Blood transfusion
  6. Providing incentives to the ANM for identification and follow-up of pregnant women with severe anaemia in high priority districts (HPDs)
  7. Training and orientation of Medical Officers and front line-workers on newer Maternal Health and Anaemia Mukt Bharat guidelines
  8. Field level awareness by ASHAs through community mobilization activities and IEC and BCC activities

Source – Press Information Bureau (pib.gov.in)

Q32. Consider the following statements in the context of intervention being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: Read More »

Q29. The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

Q29. Consider the following statements:

The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

1. Limits the levels of budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union.
2. Makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities.
3. Enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies.

How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation :
Correct Answer – a

Stability and Growth Pact

The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a set of rules designed to ensure that countries in the European Union pursue sound public finances and coordinate their fiscal policies. The primary objective of the SGP is to limit the levels of budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union. It does not specifically address sharing infrastructure facilities or technologies among the member countries.

Q29. The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that Read More »

Q28. Consider the following statement: Statement – I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in

Q28. Consider the following statement:

Statement – I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d. Statement-I- is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer – D

Statement-I is incorrect.

Statement-II is correct because many local and foreign companies operating in India have indeed taken advantage of India’s Production-linked Incentive (PLI) scheme. The PLI scheme aims to boost domestic manufacturing and exports by providing incentives to companies on incremental sales from products manufactured in India. This has attracted many companies to invest and expand their operations in the country.

Q28. Consider the following statement: Statement – I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in Read More »

Q27. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and technology council. Statement-II:

Q27. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and technology council.
Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d. Statement -I- is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

United States and the European Union

The United States and the European Union have indeed launched the Trade and Technology Council, as mentioned in Statement-I.

However, Statement-II is incorrect because the main aim of the council is to coordinate approaches to key global trade, economic, and technology issues, rather than controlling technological progress and physical productivity. The council seeks to promote innovation, facilitate cooperation on standard-setting, and reduce trade barriers.

Q27. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and technology council. Statement-II: Read More »

Q26. Consider the following statements: Statement – I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.

Q26. Consider the following statements:

Statement – I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement – II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
d. Statement-I- is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer: c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.

Switzerland

Switzerland is indeed one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value, due to its well-established gold refining industry and role as a trading hub for gold. However, Switzerland does not have the second largest gold reserves in the world. According to the World Gold Council, the United States has the largest gold reserves, followed by Germany, Italy, France, and Russia. Switzerland is not in the top five countries in terms of gold reserves.

Q26. Consider the following statements: Statement – I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Read More »

Q25. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:

Q25. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:

Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer – C

Constitution Day

Statement-I is correct, as the Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

However, Statement-II is incorrect because the Drafting Committee was set up on 29th August 1947, under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect on 26th January 1950.

Q25. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: Read More »