Prelims Solution

Q. With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned miniyet and White-throated redstart are

Q. With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned miniyet and White-throated redstart are

a) Birds
b) Primates
c) Reptiles
d) Amphibians
Correct Answer : a) Birds

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Ceylon Frogmouth (Batrachostomus moniliger)

This bird is part of the frogmouth family, known for their wide, frog-like gape. They are nocturnal and found in the Western Ghats of India and Sri Lanka. Their camouflaged plumage makes them hard to spot during the day.

Coppersmith Barbet (Psilopogon haemacephalus)

Named for its metallic ‘tuk-tuk-tuk’ calls reminiscent of a coppersmith at work, this small, vibrant bird is found across the Indian subcontinent. It is easily recognized by its green body, red forehead, and yellow throat.

Gray-chinned Minivet (Pericrocotus solaris)

This bird is a part of the minivet family, which are small to medium-sized passerines. They are known for their striking coloration, and the Gray-chinned Minivet, in particular, is found in the northeastern parts of India and extends into Southeast Asia.

White-throated Redstart (Phoenicurus schisticeps)

This species belongs to the redstart and chat family. It is found in the Himalayan region, including parts of India. The males are notable for their distinctive white throats and red tails.

Q. With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned miniyet and White-throated redstart are Read More »

Q. Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin?

Q. Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin?

1.Nagarhole National Park
2.Papikonda National Park
3.Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
4.Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : c) 1, 3 and 4 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Nagarhole National Park

This national park is located in the Kodagu district and Mysore district in Karnataka, India. It is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and is situated in the Western Ghats. The Kabini river, a tributary of the Cauvery, flows through the park. Therefore, Nagarhole National Park is indeed in the Cauvery basin.

Papikonda National Park

This national park is located in the Papi Hills in East Godavari and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh, India. It is part of the Eastern Ghats and is not in the Cauvery basin but rather in the Godavari river basin.

Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

Located in the Erode District of Tamil Nadu, this tiger reserve is part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. The Bhavani river, a tributary of the Cauvery, flows through this reserve. Thus, Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is in the Cauvery basin.

Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

This wildlife sanctuary is part of the Wayanad Plateau in Kerala and is contiguous with the protected area network of Nagarhole, Bandipur, and Mudumalai. The Kabini river, which is part of the Cauvery river system, flows in the vicinity. Therefore, Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is also in the Cauvery basin.

Given this information, the correct answer is: c) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q. Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin? Read More »

Q. With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:

1.The leader of an elephant group is a female.
2.The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
3.An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
4.Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Correct Answer : a) 1 and 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Leader of an Elephant Group

The leader of an elephant group is a female. In elephant herds, the leader is typically a female, known as the matriarch. She is usually the oldest and most experienced female in the group.

Gestation Period

The maximum gestation period for elephants can be 22 months. Elephants have the longest gestation period of any land animal, which can last up to 22 months.

Reproduction Age

An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.

Correction: This statement is incorrect. Female elephants can reproduce into their 50s. They start breeding around the age of 12-14 years and may continue to have calves every 4-5 years until about the age of 50-60.

Elephant Population in India

Among the states in India, the highest elephant population is in Karnataka.

As per Elephant Census (2017), Karnataka has the highest number of elephants (6,049), followed by Assam (5,719) and Kerala (3,054).

Given the analysis, correct answer: a) 1 and 2 only

Q. With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs: 1. Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer 2. Shramana — Priest with a high status 3. Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism

Q. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs:

1. Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer
2. Shramana — Priest with a high status
3. Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : b) 1 and 3 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer

This pair is correctly matched. Parivrajakas were individuals who had renounced worldly and materialistic pursuits to lead a life of spiritual wandering. They were often ascetics or hermits who chose a life of contemplation and detachment from worldly ties.

Shramana — Priest with a high status

This pair is not correctly matched. Shramanas were not priests with high status; rather, they were part of an ancient Indian religious movement that constituted a non-Vedic tradition. They were individuals who pursued an ascetic life, seeking liberation from the cycle of death and rebirth (samsara). Shramanas were critical of the ritualistic practices of the Vedic religion and laid the foundation for several religious and philosophical traditions, including Buddhism and Jainism.

Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism

This pair is correctly matched. Upasakas (male) and Upasikas (female) are lay followers of Buddhism. They are not monks or nuns but follow the Buddhist teachings and precepts in their daily lives while living in the secular world. They support the monastic community and participate in various religious practices without renouncing worldly life.

Given the analysis above, the pairs correctly matched are 1 (Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer) and 3 (Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism). Therefore, the correct answer is: b) 1 and 3 only

Q. With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs: 1. Parivrajaka — Renunciant and Wanderer 2. Shramana — Priest with a high status 3. Upasaka — Lay follower of Buddhism Read More »

Q. In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits?

Q. In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits?

1.Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer
2.Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so
3.Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion
4.Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1, 2 and 4 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Correct Answer : b) 1, 3 and 4 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer

This is a common coverage in cyber insurance policies for individuals. It covers the expenses involved in restoring the functionality of a computer system after it has been compromised by malware, which is a frequent cyber threat.

2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so

This is generally not covered under standard cyber insurance policies for individuals. Cyber insurance typically focuses on the losses incurred due to cyber threats and attacks such as hacking, phishing, identity theft, etc., rather than physical damage to the computer hardware caused by a person. Physical damages are usually covered under a different type of insurance policy, like homeowners’ insurance or specific gadget insurance policies.

3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion

This is also a benefit commonly covered under cyber insurance policies. Cyber extortion, where an attacker demands money in exchange for not carrying out a threat against the insured’s computer system or data, can lead to significant losses. Hiring a specialized consultant can help in mitigating these threats, and the costs associated with such consultancy are often covered.

4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit

This is another aspect typically covered under cyber insurance policies. Legal costs can accumulate quickly in the event of lawsuits related to cyber incidents, such as data breaches that compromise third-party information. Cyber insurance policies often provide coverage for legal defense costs to protect the insured from financial losses arising from such legal actions.

Therefore, options 1, 3, and 4 are benefits generally covered under cyber insurance for individuals, making option b) the correct answer.

Q. In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: 1.In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1.In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
2.One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Correct Answer : b) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

1. Agricultural Credit in India

An RBI report from 2016–17 states that scheduled commercial banks provided the majority of credit (78–80%) for agriculture and related industries. A considerable portion of agricultural credit is also extended by cooperative institutions; collectively, StCBs, DCCBs, and PACSs account for 15–16% of all cooperative banks and institutions. The remaining five percent of the agricultural credit was provided by the RRBs. Therefore, the first statement is untrue.
Source: Reserve Bank of India – Reports (rbi.org.in)

2. Role of DCCBs in Agricultural Credit

One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies. This statement is correct. One of the key roles of District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) is to serve as a link between the state cooperative banks at the apex level and the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) at the grassroots level. DCCBs provide necessary funds to PACS, which in turn offer agricultural and rural credit to individual farmers. This hierarchical structure enables the flow of funds from the top (State Cooperative Banks) through the DCCBs to the PACS, ensuring that agricultural credit reaches the grassroots level where it is most needed.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1.In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks. Read More »

Q. With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the following statements:

1.Worker productivity (Rs. per worker at 2004 — 05 prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas.
2.The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased.
3.In rural areas, the growth in non-farm economy increased.
4.The growth rate in rural employment decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are Correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Correct Answer : b) 3 and 4 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Economic Liberalization of 1991

The economic liberalization of 1991 in India marked a significant shift in the country’s economic policies, moving towards a more open and market-oriented economy. This period saw various changes in the structure of the Indian economy, including shifts in employment patterns, productivity, and the composition of the workforce.

Analysis of the Statements

2. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased. – This statement is incorrect. The trend has been the opposite; the percentage share of the rural workforce has been decreasing as more people migrate to urban areas for better employment opportunities, and as the economy shifts more towards the services and industrial sectors, which are predominantly urban-based.

3. In rural areas, the growth in the non-farm economy increased. – This statement is correct. Post-liberalization, there was a significant increase in the non-farm economy in rural areas. This includes manufacturing, construction, and services. The diversification of the rural economy helped in absorbing the workforce that could not be accommodated in the agricultural sector, contributing to rural development and poverty reduction.

4. The growth rate in rural employment decreased. – This statement is correct. The growth rate in rural employment has decreased, particularly in the agricultural sector, which has seen a decline in its ability to absorb labor due to various factors including mechanization, improved productivity requiring less labor, and land fragmentation. However, the non-farm sector has seen growth, but not enough to completely offset the decline in agricultural employment growth rates.

Given the analysis, the correct statements are 3 and 4, making the correct answer:

b) 3 and 4 only

Q. With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do?

Q. If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do?

1.Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
2.Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate
3.Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : b) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Expansionist Monetary Policy

Expansionist monetary policy, also known as an expansionary or accommodative monetary policy, is a strategy used by a central bank like the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to increase the supply of money in the economy in order to stimulate economic growth. This is typically done to combat low inflation, high unemployment, or to counteract a recession. The tools for this policy include lowering interest rates and decreasing reserve requirements.

Options for an Expansionist Monetary Policy

Let’s analyze the options given in the question:

  1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR): The SLR is the minimum percentage of deposits that a bank has to maintain in the form of gold, cash, or other approved securities. Reducing the SLR would allow banks to lend more, thereby increasing the money supply in the economy. This action aligns with an expansionist monetary policy.
  2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate (MSF): The MSF rate is the rate at which banks can borrow funds overnight from the RBI against approved government securities. Increasing the MSF rate would make borrowing more expensive for banks, which would likely reduce the money supply available for lending to the economy. This action does not align with an expansionist monetary policy; it is more in line with a contractionary monetary policy.
  3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate: The bank rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks, and the repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to commercial banks in the short term. Reducing these rates would lower the cost of borrowing for banks, encouraging them to lend more and thus increasing the money supply. This action aligns with an expansionist monetary policy.

Given the above explanations, the action that the RBI would not do if it decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy is:

2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate

Therefore, the correct answer is: b) 2 only

Q. If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do? Read More »

Q. With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct?

Q. With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1.Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited.
2.They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services.
3.They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer : c) 1 and 3 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited:

This statement is correct. The Agreement on Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS) identifies measures that are inconsistent with the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) 1994 provisions regarding national treatment (Article III) and the prohibition of quantitative restrictions (Article XI). Therefore, TRIMS prohibits investment measures that mandate or enforce specific quantitative restrictions on imports or exports as a condition for the establishment, acquisition, expansion, management, conduct, or operation of an investment.

They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services:

This statement is incorrect. TRIMS specifically applies to investment measures related to trade in goods only, not services. The regulation of trade in services is primarily covered under the General Agreement on Trade in Services (GATS). While TRIMS and GATS are both agreements under the World Trade Organization (WTO), they address different aspects of trade, with TRIMS focusing on the goods sector.

They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment:

This statement is correct. While TRIMS does concern the regulation of foreign investment, its focus is specifically on how these regulations affect trade in goods. It does not deal with the regulation of foreign investment in its entirety but rather with investment measures that have implications for trade in goods, such as local content requirements or trade balancing requirements. The main concern of TRIMS is ensuring that investment measures do not create trade distortions or barriers in violation of GATT principles.

Therefore, the statements 1 and 3 are correct, making option c) 1 and 3 only the right choice.

Q. With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? Read More »

Q. In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under “IAEA safeguards” while others are not ?

Q. In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under “IAEA safeguards” while others are not ?

a) Some use uranium and others use thorium
b) Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies
c) Some are operated by foreign enterprises and others are operated by domestic enterprises
d) Some are State-owned and others are privately-owned
Correct Answer : b) Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

India’s Approach to Nuclear Energy and Safeguards

India’s approach to nuclear energy and the associated safeguards is shaped by its unique position in the international nuclear community. India is not a signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), but it has nuclear reactors that are subject to International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards.

IAEA Safeguards for Imported Uranium Reactors

Reactors that use imported uranium are placed under IAEA safeguards to ensure that the imported nuclear material is used exclusively for peaceful purposes and not for the production of nuclear weapons. This is a condition imposed by the countries and international consortia that supply India with uranium, as they require assurances that their supplied materials are not diverted to military uses. The safeguards involve regular inspections and monitoring by the IAEA to verify that the safeguarded nuclear material is accounted for and is being used as declared by the state.

Domestically Sourced Uranium Reactors

On the other hand, reactors that use domestically sourced uranium are not automatically placed under IAEA safeguards. India has the discretion to decide which of its domestically-fueled reactors, if any, it places under safeguards. The decision to place certain reactors under IAEA safeguards, even if they use domestic uranium, is often part of broader nuclear cooperation agreements with other countries. For example, as part of the India-US nuclear deal, India agreed to place a number of its reactors under IAEA safeguards, including some that use domestically sourced fuel, in exchange for access to nuclear technology and fuel from the United States and other countries.

The other options provided do not accurately describe the criteria for placing Indian nuclear reactors under IAEA safeguards:

a) The use of uranium or thorium as fuel is not the determining factor for IAEA safeguards. India is developing thorium-based reactors as part of its long-term nuclear strategy, but the key factor for safeguards is the source of the fuel (imported or domestic), not the type.

c) The operation of reactors by foreign or domestic enterprises is not relevant to the application of IAEA safeguards. The safeguards are applied based on the source of the nuclear material and the agreements India has with other countries and international bodies, not on the ownership or management of the reactors.

d) The ownership of reactors (State-owned vs. privately-owned) is also not a criterion for IAEA safeguards. Currently, all operational nuclear power plants in India are owned and operated by the government or government-owned corporations. The application of safeguards is based on the source of nuclear material and international agreements, not on the ownership structure of the reactors.

Q. In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under “IAEA safeguards” while others are not ? Read More »