Prelims Solution

There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit PIN. The PIN contains digits 1 to 7. There is no repetition of digits. The digits in the PIN from left to right are in decreasing order. Any two digits in the PIN differ by at least 2. How many maximum attempts does one need to find out the PIN with certainty?

Q. There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit PIN. The PIN contains digits 1 to 7. There is no repetition of digits. The digits in the PIN from left to right are in decreasing order. Any two digits in the PIN differ by at least 2. How many maximum attempts does one need to find out the PIN with certainty?

a.    8
b.   8
c.    10
d.   12
Correct Answer: c.    10

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

Numeric Lock 3 digit PIN Combinations

All Possible Values for a 3-digit PIN are 753, 752, 751, 742, 741, 731, 642, 641, 631, 531.
So, the maximum number of attempts one need to find out the PIN with certainty is 10.

Numeric Lock 3 digit PIN Combinations

There is a numeric lock which has a 3-digit PIN. The PIN contains digits 1 to 7. There is no repetition of digits. The digits in the PIN from left to right are in decreasing order. Any two digits in the PIN differ by at least 2. How many maximum attempts does one need to find out the PIN with certainty? Read More »

The average weight of A, B, C is 40 kg, the average weight of B, D, E is 42 kg and the weight of F is equal to that of B What is the average weight of A, B, C, D, E and F?

Q. The average weight of A, B, C is 40 kg, the average weight of B, D, E is 42 kg and the weight of F is equal to that of B. What is the average weight of A, B, C, D, E and F?

a. 40.5 kg
b. 40.8 kg
c. 41 kg
d. Cannot be determined as data is Inadequate
Correct Answer: c. 41 kg

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
(A + B + C)/3 = 40
A + B + C = 120 ——-(1.)

(B + D + E)/3 = 42
B + D + E = 126 ——–(2.)

As B = F, so we can write F in place of B in equation (2.)
We get, F + D + E = 126 ——-(3.)

Adding equation (1.) and (3.), we get

A + B + C + D + E + F = 120 + 126
A + B + C + D + E + F = 246

Avereage weight of A, B, C, D, E and F = 246 / 6 = 41

Hence, option 3 is correct.

The average weight of A, B, C is 40 kg, the average weight of B, D, E is 42 kg and the weight of F is equal to that of B What is the average weight of A, B, C, D, E and F? Read More »

Q. X and Y run a 3 km race along a circular course of length 300 m. Their speeds are in the ratio 3:2. If they start together in the same direction, how many times would the first one pass the other (the start-off is not counted as passing)?

Q. X and Y run a 3 km race along a circular course of length 300 m. Their speeds are in the ratio 3:2. If they start together in the same direction, how many times would the first one pass the other (the start-off is not counted as passing)?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
Correct Answer: b. 3

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

X and Y run a 3 km race

The faster runner will cross the slower one when he covers an extra 300 m. Let their speeds be 3 m/sec and 2 m/sec. So, their relative speed = 3 – 2 = 1 m/sec. So, the time taken by the faster runner to cross the slower one = Distance/Relative Speed = 300/1 = 300 seconds.

It basically means that the faster runner will cross the slower one every 300 seconds or 5 minutes. Now, the time taken for the faster racer to complete the entire race = Total Distance/Speed = 3000/3 =1000 seconds.

So, during the entire race, which lasts for 1000 seconds, the faster racer will cross the slower one 3 times – after 300 seconds, 600 seconds, and 900 seconds.

X and Y run a 3 km race

Q. X and Y run a 3 km race along a circular course of length 300 m. Their speeds are in the ratio 3:2. If they start together in the same direction, how many times would the first one pass the other (the start-off is not counted as passing)? Read More »

The increase in the price of a certain item was 25%. Then the price was decreased by 20% and then again increased by 10%. What is the resultant increase in the price?

Q. The increase in the price of a certain item was 25%. Then the price was decreased by 20% and then again increased by 10%. What is the resultant increase in the price?

a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 12.5%
d. 15%
Correct Answer: b. 10%

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 
Let’s assume the initial price of the item to be x.

After a 25% increase in price, the new price will be:
x + 0.25x = 1.25x

Next, the price is decreased by 20%. The new price will be:
0.8(1.25x) = 1x

Finally, the price is increased by 10%. The new price will be:
1.1(1x) = 1.1x

To find the resultant increase in price

we need to find the percentage increase from the initial price x to the final price 1.1x:
Resultant increase = [(1.1x – x) / x] x 100%
= (0.1x / x) x 100%
= 10%

Therefore, the resultant increase in the price is 10%. The correct answer is (b).

The increase in the price of a certain item was 25%. Then the price was decreased by 20% and then again increased by 10%. What is the resultant increase in the price? Read More »

Q. In a tournament of Chess having 150 entrants, a player is eliminated whenever he loses a match. It is given that no match results in a tie/draw. How many matches are played in the entire tournament?

Q. In a tournament of Chess having 150 entrants, a player is eliminated whenever he loses a match. It is given that no match results in a tie/draw. How many matches are played in the entire tournament?

a. 151
b. 150
c. 149
d. 148
Correct Answer: c. 149

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

In a tournament of Chess

In a knockout chess tournament like this, each player is eliminated after losing a match. Since there are 150 entrants, only one player remains undefeated at the end of the tournament, and this player is the winner.

To find out how many matches are played, we can think about it in terms of elimination: for every player except the winner, they have to lose exactly one match to be eliminated. Since there are 150 entrants and only one winner, 150 – 1 = 149 players need to be eliminated.

Each elimination comes from one match, so there are 149 matches played in the entire tournament.

Q. In a tournament of Chess having 150 entrants, a player is eliminated whenever he loses a match. It is given that no match results in a tie/draw. How many matches are played in the entire tournament? Read More »

Which number amongst 2^40, 3^21, 4^18 and 8^12 is the smallest?

Q. Which number amongst 2^40, 3^21, 4^18 and 8^12 is the smallest?

a. 2^40
b. 3^21
c. 4^18
d. 8^12
Correct Answer: b. 3^21

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

Which number among is smallest:

2^40, 3^21, 4^18, and 8^12

We can also write them as: 2^40, 3^21, 2^36, and 2^36.

We can rewrite 2^36 and 3^21 as:
2^12 and 3^7
4096 > 2187
Hence, 3^21 is the smallest number.

Which number amongst 2^40, 3^21, 4^18 and 8^12 is the smallest? Read More »

Q. A bill for Rs. 1,840 is paid in the denominations of Rs. 50, Rs. 20 and Rs.10 notes. 50 notes in all are used. Consider the following statements:

Q. A bill for Rs. 1,840 is paid in the denominations of Rs. 50, Rs. 20 and Rs.10 notes. 50 notes in all are used. Consider the following statements:

1.  25 notes of Rs. 50 are used and the remaining arc in the denominations of Rs.20 and Rs. 10.
2. 35 notes of Rs.20 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of Rs. 50 and Rs. 10.
3. 20 notes of Rs.10 are used and the remaining are in the denominations of Rs. 50 and Rs. 20.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: d. 1, 2 and 3

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

A bill for 1840

Statement 1: 25 notes of Rs. 50 were used. So, remaining amount = 1840 – (25 × 50) = 1840 – 1250 = Rs. 590.
Even if all the remaining 25 notes are of Rs. 20 denomination, we will only get Rs. 500. So, Statement 1 is definitely incorrect.

Statement 2: 35 notes of Rs. 20 were used. So, remaining amount = 1840 – (35 × 20) = 1840 – 700 = Rs. 1140.
Even if all the remaining 15 notes are of Rs. 50 denomination, we will only get Rs. 750. So, Statement 2 is definitely incorrect.

Statement 3: 20 notes of Rs. 10 were used. So, remaining amount = 1840 – (20 × 10) = 1840 – 200 = Rs. 1640.Even if all the remaining 30 notes are of Rs. 50 denomination, we will only get Rs. 1500. So, Statement 3 is definitely incorrect.

A bill for 1840

Q. A bill for Rs. 1,840 is paid in the denominations of Rs. 50, Rs. 20 and Rs.10 notes. 50 notes in all are used. Consider the following statements: Read More »

An Identity Card has the number ABCDEFG, not necessarily in that order, where each letter represents a distinct digit (1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8. 9 only). The number is divisible by 9. After deleting the first digit from the right, the resulting number is divisible by 6. After deleting two digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 5.

Q. An Identity Card has the number ABCDEFG, not necessarily in that order, where each letter represents a distinct digit (1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8. 9 only). The number is divisible by 9. After deleting the first digit from the right, the resulting number is divisible by 6. After deleting two digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 5. After deleting three digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 4. After deleting four digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 3. After deleting five digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 2.

Which of the following is a possible value for the sum of the middle three digits of the number?
a.  8
b.  9
c. 11
d. 12
Correct Answer: a. 8

Question from UPSC Prelims 2022 CSAT Paper

Explanation : 

An Identity Card has the number ABCDEFG

The number ABCDEFG is divisible by 9. Since the sum of the digits of a number divisible by 9 is also divisible by 9, we know that A+B+C+D+E+F+G = 1+2+4+5+7+8+9 = 36.

After deleting the first digit from the right (G), the resulting number ABCDEF is divisible by 6. This means that F must be even (2 or 8) and the sum of the digits (A+B+C+D+E+F) must be divisible by 3.

After deleting two digits from the right (FG), the resulting number ABCDE is divisible by 5. This means that E must be 5.

After deleting three digits from the right (EFG), the resulting number ABCD is divisible by 4. For a number to be divisible by 4, the last two digits must form a number divisible by 4. So, CD must be one of the following pairs: 12, 24, 28, 52, 72, 92.

After deleting four digits from the right (EFGD), the resulting number ABC is divisible by 3. This means that the sum of A, B, and C must be divisible by 3.

After deleting five digits from the right (EFGDC), the resulting number AB is divisible by 2. This means that B must be even (2 or 8).

Now let’s use this information to find the possible value for the sum of the middle three digits (C, D, and E).

Since E is 5, and B is even (2 or 8), we can eliminate the pairs 52 and 92 for CD, as they would require B to be odd. We are left with these possibilities for CD: 12, 24, 28, 72.

Consider CD = 12. Then, A = 7, B = 8, C = 1, D = 2, E = 5, F = 4, and G = 9. The conditions for divisibility by 9, 6, 5, 4, 3, and 2 are satisfied with 7815249. The sum of the middle three digits (C, D, and E) is 1+2+5 = 8.

In this case, the correct answer is (a) 8.

An Identity Card has the number ABCDEFG, not necessarily in that order, where each letter represents a distinct digit (1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8. 9 only). The number is divisible by 9. After deleting the first digit from the right, the resulting number is divisible by 6. After deleting two digits from the right of original number, the resulting number is divisible by 5. Read More »

Q. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?

Q. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?

a) Corbett
b) Ranthambore
c) Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam
d) Sundarbans
Correct Answer : c) Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

Tiger Reserves (wiienvis.nic.in)

 

Nagarjunsagar Srisailam Tiger ReserveAndhra Pradesh3,296.31 Sq.Km.

Q. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”? Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10ºC lesser than that of the surroundings.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1 and 3 only
Correct Answer : b) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2020 GS Paper

Explanation:

1. Jet streams occur in both the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere.

Jet streams are fast flowing, narrow air currents found in the atmospheres of some planets, including Earth. On Earth, the main jet streams are located near the altitude of the tropopause and are westerly winds (flowing west to east). They occur in both the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere. Therefore, the assertion that jet streams occur only in the Northern Hemisphere is false.

2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.

The eye of a cyclone is a region at the center of a cyclone in which the weather is calm and the sky is clear or only partially covered by clouds. Not all cyclones develop a well-defined eye; it is characteristic of strong tropical cyclones (notably, hurricanes and typhoons). The formation of an eye is associated with the maturity of the cyclone, and weaker cyclones may not develop an eye at all.

3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10ºC lesser than that of the surroundings.

This statement is incorrect. In fact, the temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is warmer than its surroundings. The eye is warmer partly because of the sinking air within it, which compresses and warms up. The temperature difference can contribute to the cyclone’s intensity. The exact temperature difference can vary, but the key point is that the eye is warmer, not cooler, than its surroundings.

Q. Consider the following statements: 1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only. Read More »