Explanation : 

Correct Answer -> c. All three

Carbon capture and sequestration

1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively: This process, known as enhanced weathering, involves spreading crushed rocks that are rich in minerals like basalt on farmlands. The minerals in the rocks react with carbon dioxide in the air and form stable compounds, thereby capturing and storing the carbon dioxide.
See this -> Enhanced Weathering: crushed rocks spread on farmland can capture billions of tons of CO2/year – Energy Post

2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime: This method involves adding alkaline materials, such as lime, to the ocean to increase its capacity to absorb and store carbon dioxide. This process can help counteract ocean acidification and promote the formation of stable carbonate minerals, which can store carbon dioxide for long periods.

3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters: This process, known as carbon capture and storage (CCS), involves capturing carbon dioxide emissions from industrial sources, such as power plants, and injecting the captured gas into underground geological formations, such as abandoned mines or saline aquifers, for long-term storage.

Explanation :

Correct Answer – d. None

Tata Mundra Ultra Mega Power Plant, Gujarat

Located near the coast in Gujarat, the Tata Mundra Ultra Mega Power Plant is a notable example of a coal-based thermal power plant that utilizes seawater for cooling. This strategic use of seawater helps in mitigating the freshwater usage issue common in thermal power plants.

Singrauli Super Thermal Power Plant, Madhya Pradesh

In contrast, the Singrauli Super Thermal Power Plant in Madhya Pradesh exemplifies a plant situated in a water-stressed district. The region’s water scarcity has historically posed challenges for the plant, emphasizing the complex interplay between energy generation and environmental sustainability.

Privately Owned Coal-Based Power Plants

A prime example of privately owned coal-based thermal power in India is the Adani Power Plant in Mundra, Gujarat. Operated by Adani Power, a leading private company, this plant is part of a larger network of coal-based power plants across India, showcasing the role of private enterprises in the country’s energy sector.

Explanation : 

Correct Answer: d. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Temperature Contrast Between Continents and Oceans

Statement I: “The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.”
This statement is incorrect.

During summer, both continents and oceans receive more solar radiation and heat up. However, due to the high specific heat capacity of water, oceans take longer to heat up compared to land.
In winter, continents cool down quickly due to their lower specific heat capacity and the reduced solar radiation. However, oceans retain the heat accumulated during summer for a longer time due to their high specific heat capacity. This leads to a situation where continents become much colder than oceans, creating a larger temperature contrast.

Role of Specific Heat in Temperature Variations

Statement II: “The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.” This statement is also correct.
Specific heat is the amount of heat per unit mass required to raise the temperature by one degree Celsius. Water has a higher specific heat capacity than land, meaning it takes more energy to raise the temperature of water by one degree compared to land. This is why water heats up and cools down more slowly than land.

Explanation : 

Correct Answer c. -> Both statements are correct.

Explanation : 

Correct Answer b. Only two

Central Government’s Duty to Protect States: Article 355 of the Indian Constitution

This statement is correct. Article 355 of the Constitution of India states that it shall be the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of this Constitution.

Article 22. Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases

(1) No person who is arrested shall be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest nor shall he be denied the right to consult, and to be defended by, a legal practitioner of his choice.
(2) Every person who is arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of twenty-four hours of such arrest excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court of the magistrate and no such person shall be detained in custody beyond the said period without the authority of a magistrate.
(3) Nothing in clauses (1) and (2) shall apply—
(a) to any person who for the time being is an enemy alien; or
(b) to any person who is arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention.
This statement is also correct

Admissibility of Confessions in POTA 2002

This statement is incorrect. The Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA), 2002, which has been repealed, allowed confessions made by the accused before a police officer of the rank of Superintendent of Police or above to be admissible as evidence during the trial (Section 32 of POTA).

So, only two statement are correct.

Explanation : 

Correct Answer – b

Assessment of India’s Public Sector Health Care System

Statement-I: This statement is considered correct. India’s public sector health care system extensively focuses on various aspects of health care, including preventive measures (such as the Pulse Polio Campaign – Do Boond Zindagi Ki), promotive, curative, and rehabilitative care. A key initiative in this regard is the National Health Mission (NHM), which aims to offer comprehensive primary health care services. These services encompass preventive, promotive, and curative care, along with rehabilitative care, demonstrating the system’s wide-ranging focus.

India’s Decentralized Approach to Health Care Delivery

Statement-II: This statement is correct. The decentralized approach to health care delivery in India primarily places the responsibility of organizing health services on the State governments. While the central government contributes through financial and technical support, the actual implementation of health programs and the delivery of services are managed by the States. 

State List (List II – Entry 6): This entry specifically assigns “public health and sanitation; hospitals and dispensaries” to the State governments. It underscores that States have the primary responsibility for organizing and managing health services, allowing them to tailor health care systems to local needs and priorities.

Therefore, the correct answer is b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

Explanation : 

Correct Answer  – b ( This is the official answer)

According to MSMED Act 2006 upsc

After 14 years since the MSME Development Act came into existence in 2006, a revision in MSME definition was announced in the Atmnirbhar Bharat package on 13th May, 2020.

As per this announcement, the definition of Micro manufacturing and services units was increased to Rs. 1 Crore of investment and Rs. 5 Crore of turnover. The limit of Small unit was increased to Rs. 10 Crore of investment and Rs 50 Crore of turnover. Similarly, the limit of Medium unit was increased to Rs. 20 Crore of investment and Rs. 100 Crore of turnover.

The Government of India on 01.06.2020 decided for further upward revision of the MSME Definition. For Medium Enterprises, now it will be Rs. 50 Crore of investment and Rs. 250 Crore of turnover.

Priority Sector Lending Guidelines

In terms of Master Direction on ‘Priority Sector Lending (PSL) – Targets and Classification’ dated September 4, 2020, all bank loans to MSMEs conforming to the conditions prescribed therein qualify for classification under priority sector lending.

According to UPSC, Statement 2 is correct.

Explanation : 

d. None

Amarkantak Hills

Amarkantak Hills are not at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges, but rather are located in the Maikal Range, which is a part of the Satpura Range.

Biligirirangan Hills

Biligirirangan Hills do not constitute the easternmost part of the Satpura Range; instead, they are situated at the confluence of the Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats.
Biligiriranga Hills are a starting point of the Eastern Ghats and contact the border of the Western Ghats, allowing animals to move between them and facilitating gene flow between populations of species in these areas. Thus, this sanctuary serves as an important biological bridge for the biota of the entire Deccan plateau.

Seshachalam Hills

Seshachalam Hills do not constitute the southernmost part of the Western Ghats, as they are part of the Eastern Ghats. Therefore, none of the statements given above are correct.

Explanation : 

Correct Answer – b

Besnagar Cave

Besnagar is an archaeological site in Madhya Pradesh, India. While it is not particularly well-known for a Shaivite cave shrine, it is famous for the Heliodorus Pillar, an ancient Garuda Pillar dedicated to Lord Vishnu. The Udayagiri Caves, which are located nearby, do contain ancient Hindu and Jain sculptures, but they are not specifically known as a Shaivite cave shrine.

Bhaja Cave

Bhaja Caves are a group of 22 rock-cut caves located in Maharashtra, India, and are well known for their Buddhist architecture and sculptures. They date back to the 2nd century BCE and are an important example of early Buddhist cave art in India.

Sittanavasal Cave

Sittanavasal is a small village in Tamil Nadu, India, famous for its Jain cave shrine known as Sittanavasal Cave. The cave contains ancient Jain frescoes and inscriptions dating back to the 7th-9th centuries CE.

Explanation : 

c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

Supreme Court Judgments on Reservation Policies

The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for the maintenance of efficiency of administration. This means that while providing reservation to certain groups, the efficiency of administration should not be compromised.

1. N.M. Thomas vs. State of Kerala (1976): The Supreme Court upheld the state government’s decision to extend reservation to SC and ST candidates in promotional posts. The court argued that such reservations were a way to ensure equality of opportunity, stating that Article 335 should not be interpreted in a manner that undermines the purpose of Article 16(4).

2. Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India (1992): Often referred to as the Mandal Commission case, this judgment declared that reservations could be valid but should not exceed 50% of the available positions, considering it essential to maintain an efficient administration as mandated by Article 335. The court also stated that the concept of ‘efficiency’ is not merely numerical but should be understood as an overall efficiency including the representation of backward classes.

3. M. Nagaraj & Others vs. Union of India & Others (2006): This case re-affirmed that reservations in promotions can be constitutionally valid but should be applied cautiously, with the state needing to show quantifiable data to justify such reservations. The court ruled that any reservation policy should not disturb the efficiency of administration, reiterating the balance mandated by Article 335.

Article 335 of the Constitution of India

Article 335 of the Constitution of India does not define the term ‘efficiency of administration.’ Article 335 states that the claims of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes shall be taken into consideration, consistently with the maintenance of efficiency of administration, in the making of appointments to services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or of a State.

Article 335 in Constitution of India (indiankanoon.org)