Q32. Consider the following statements in the context of intervention being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy:
1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child birth. 3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
How many of the statements given above are correct? a. Only one b. Only two c. Only three d. All four
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
Correct Answer – C
First Statement is Incorrect
Prophylactic Iron and Folic Acid Supplementation in all six target age groups
Intensified year-round Behaviour Change Communication (BCC) Campaign for:(a) improving compliance to Iron Folic Acid supplementation and deworming, (b) enhancing appropriate infant and young child feeding practices, (c) encouraging increase in intake of iron-rich food through diet diversity/quantity/frequency and/or fortified foods with focus on harnessing locally available resources, and (d) ensuring delayed cord clamping after delivery (by 3 minutes) in health facilities
Testing and treatment of anaemia, using digital methods and point of care treatment, with special focus on pregnant women and school-going adolescents
Addressing non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis
Management of severe anaemia in pregnant women undertaken by administration of IV Iron Sucrose/Blood transfusion
Providing incentives to the ANM for identification and follow-up of pregnant women with severe anaemia in high priority districts (HPDs)
Training and orientation of Medical Officers and front line-workers on newer Maternal Health and Anaemia Mukt Bharat guidelines
Field level awareness by ASHAs through community mobilization activities and IEC and BCC activities
The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that
1. Limits the levels of budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union. 2. Makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities. 3. Enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies.
How many of the above statements are correct? a. Only one b. Only two c. All three d. None
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation : Correct Answer – a
Stability and Growth Pact
The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a set of rules designed to ensure that countries in the European Union pursue sound public finances and coordinate their fiscal policies. The primary objective of the SGP is to limit the levels of budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union. It does not specifically address sharing infrastructure facilities or technologies among the member countries.
Statement – I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked Incentive’ scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a. Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. d. Statement-I- is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
Correct Answer – D
Statement-I is incorrect.
Statement-II is correct because many local and foreign companies operating in India have indeed taken advantage of India’s Production-linked Incentive (PLI) scheme. The PLI scheme aims to boost domestic manufacturing and exports by providing incentives to companies on incremental sales from products manufactured in India. This has attracted many companies to invest and expand their operations in the country.
Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and technology council. Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a. Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. d. Statement -I- is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
United States and the European Union
The United States and the European Union have indeed launched the Trade and Technology Council, as mentioned in Statement-I.
However, Statement-II is incorrect because the main aim of the council is to coordinate approaches to key global trade, economic, and technology issues, rather than controlling technological progress and physical productivity. The council seeks to promote innovation, facilitate cooperation on standard-setting, and reduce trade barriers.
Statement – I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement – II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a. Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. d. Statement-I- is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
Correct Answer: c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
Switzerland
Switzerland is indeed one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value, due to its well-established gold refining industry and role as a trading hub for gold. However, Switzerland does not have the second largest gold reserves in the world. According to the World Gold Council, the United States has the largest gold reserves, followed by Germany, Italy, France, and Russia. Switzerland is not in the top five countries in terms of gold reserves.
Q25. Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
Correct Answer – C
Constitution Day
Statement-I is correct, as the Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
However, Statement-II is incorrect because the Drafting Committee was set up on 29th August 1947, under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the Constitution of India, which came into effect on 26th January 1950.
Q24. Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002:
Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm * 400 mm.
Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
Correct Answer: d. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Flag Code of India
According to the Flag Code of India, 2002, the standard sizes of the National Flag are not 600 mm * 400 mm. The correct standard sizes are 6300 mm x 4200 mm, 3600 mm x 2400 mm, 2700 mm x 1800 mm, 1800 mm x 1200 mm, 1350 mm x 900 mm, 900 mm x 600 mm, 450 mm x 300 mm, 225 mm x 150 mm, and 150 mm x 100 mm.
Statement-II is correct as the ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day. Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect d. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
Correct Answer: a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
National Handloom Day is observed on 7th August every year to honor the handloom weavers and the rich handloom traditions of India. This day was chosen as it commemorates the launch of the Swadeshi Movement in 1905, which aimed at reviving domestic products and production processes, including handlooms.
The Swadeshi Movement played a significant role in promoting the handloom industry and encouraging the use of Indian handloom products.
Q20. ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which one of the following?
a. Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna b. Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into diverse functional tissues c. Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants d. Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
a. Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
Microsatellite DNA and its Importance
Microsatellite DNA, also known as short tandem repeats (STRs), consists of short repeating sequences of nucleotides (usually 2-6 base pairs) found throughout the genome. These repetitive sequences are highly variable among individuals and populations, making them useful for studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna. By comparing the microsatellite DNA patterns of different individuals or species, researchers can infer genetic diversity, population structure, and evolutionary relationships. Microsatellite DNA is not directly involved in stem cell stimulation, clonal propagation of plants, or drug trial assessments.
Q19. ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one of the following situations?
a. Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go b. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat c. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals d. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies
Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper
Explanation :
Correct Answer: a. Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
Aerial Metagenomics UPSC
Aerial metagenomics refers to the process of collecting and analyzing DNA samples from the air in a specific habitat. This method helps in understanding the genetic makeup of various organisms (including bacteria, fungi, plants, and animals) present in the environment without having to physically collect samples from each organism. The term “aerial” refers to the air, and “metagenomics” refers to the study of genetic material from multiple species within a community.