Prelims 2024 GS Solution

Q. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

Q. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?

1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1. 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper

Explanation : 

The 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added three languages:

1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali

Maithili was added later by the 92nd Amendment Act in 2003.

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Q. The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? Read More »

Q. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

Q. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration

1. He/she shall not preside.
2. He/she shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/she shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: (a) 1 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper

Explanation : 

1. He/she shall not preside.
This statement is correct. According to Article 96 of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker cannot preside over the proceedings when a resolution for their removal is being discussed.

2. He/she shall not have the right to speak.
This statement is incorrect. The Speaker retains the right to speak in their defense during the proceedings concerning their removal.

3. He/she shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
This statement is also incorrect. The Speaker can vote in the first instance as a member of the Lok Sabha, but not as a presiding officer.

Based on this analysis, the correct answer is (a) 1 only.

Q. With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration Read More »

Q. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.

Q. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct answer: (b) 1 and 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Evaluating the statements regarding the lapsing of bills in the Indian Parliament:

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
This statement is correct. When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, all bills pending in it lapse.

2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
This statement is also correct. A bill that has been passed by the Lok Sabha but is still pending in the Rajya Sabha will lapse upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
This statement is incorrect. If the President has notified a joint sitting, that bill does not lapse upon dissolution.

Based on this analysis, the correct answer is (b) 1 and 2.

Q. With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. Read More »

Q. With reference to the Parliament of India, Consider the following statements: 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Q. With reference to the Parliament of India, Consider the following statements:

1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India proroguing the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Correct answer: (c) 2 and 3

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper

Explanation : 

1. Statement 1: “Prorogation ofa a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers”

– This is FALSE. The President prorogues either House of Parliament only on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
– Like most powers of the President, this too is exercised on ministerial advice under Article 74 of the Constitution.

2. Statement 2: “Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India proroguing the House which is in session”

– This is CORRECT.
– While prorogation usually follows adjournment sine die, the President can prorogue a House even when it is in session.
– There is no constitutional bar on this power.

3. Statement 3: “Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers”

– This is CORRECT.
– The President dissolves the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers.
– In exceptional circumstances (like if no party can form government), the President may exercise discretion.

Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is incorrect.

The correct answer is (c) 2 and 3.

Q. With reference to the Parliament of India, Consider the following statements: 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers. Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net- Zero Industry Act recently.

Q. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.
Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-1
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.

This statement is correct. The European Parliament debated and finalized the Net Zero Industry Act on February 6, 2024, which aims to enhance domestic production of green technologies, including renewables and energy storage.

Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.

This statement is incorrect in its timeframe. The EU’s goal is to achieve carbon neutrality by 2050, not 2040. However, it has set a target to reduce net greenhouse gas emissions by 90% by 2040, which is part of its strategy to reach carbon neutrality by 2050.

Given this analysis, the correct option is: (c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Q. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net- Zero Industry Act recently. Read More »

Q. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:

1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Correct answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Evaluating the statements regarding the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP):

1. Central Government Funding: The DILRMP is indeed a Central Sector Scheme that provides 100% funding from the Central Government, effective from April 1, 2016.

2. Digitization of Cadastral Maps: The scheme includes the digitization of cadastral maps, which is a significant component of its objectives.

3. Transliteration of Records of Rights: There is an initiative under the DILRMP to transliterate the Records of Rights from local languages to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. This has been implemented in several states using a transliteration tool.

Based on this, all three statements are correct. Therefore, the answer is: (d) 1, 2 and 3.

Q. With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.

Q. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.
Statement-II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
(c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
(d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Correct answer: (d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Statement I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.

– This statement is incorrect. Venezuela continues to face severe economic challenges including hyperinflation, poverty, and shortages of basic goods
– There is still significant emigration from Venezuela, with millions having left the country in recent years
– The humanitarian crisis continues to drive people to neighboring countries like Colombia, Peru, and Ecuador

Statement II: Venezuela has the world’s largest oil reserves.

– This statement is correct. Venezuela has the world’s largest proven oil reserves, estimated at around 300 billion barrels
– This is more than Saudi Arabia’s reserves, making Venezuela the country with the largest known oil reserves globally

Q. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries. Read More »

Q. With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements:

1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct answer: (b) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA)

1. This statement is incorrect. The PMSMA focuses primarily on providing antenatal care during the second and third trimesters, but it does not extend to a guaranteed package of services for six months post-delivery in all government health facilities.

2. This statement is correct. The scheme does indeed allow private healthcare providers to volunteer their services at government facilities to improve maternal health care access.

Given this analysis, the correct answer is: (b) 2 only.

Q. With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

Q. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:

1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
3. Each Subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of Rs. 3000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Correct answer: (c) 2 only

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper

Explanation : 

To evaluate the statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana:

1. Entry Age Group: The entry age for enrolment in the scheme is actually between 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40 years. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

2. Age Specific Contribution: Beneficiaries are required to make contributions based on their entry age, which is correct. Hence, this statement is correct.

3. Minimum Pension: Each subscriber under the scheme receives a minimum pension of Rs. 3000 per month after reaching the age of 60 years, making this statement correct.

4. Family Pension: Family pension is applicable only to the spouse of the subscriber. Thus, this statement is incorrect.

Based on this analysis, the correct statements are 2 and 3 only. Therefore, the answer is: (b) 2 and 3 only

Q. With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q. Which of the following statements about Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 are correct?

Q. Which of the following statements about Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 are correct?

1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise,
Select the answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Correct answer: (d) 2, 3 and 4

Question from UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023

1. Joint Military Exercise: The statement that Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh is incorrect. It was actually conducted between India and Sri Lanka.

2. Location: The exercise commenced in Aundh (Pune), which is correct.

3. Counter-Terrorism Operations: The goal of the exercise included joint responses during counter-terrorism operations, making this statement correct.

4. Indian Air Force Participation: The Indian Air Force did participate in the exercise, with 15 personnel involved.

Based on this analysis, the correct statements are 2, 3, and 4. Therefore, the answer is: (d) 2, 3 and 4

Q. Which of the following statements about Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 are correct? Read More »