Prelims 2025 GS Solution

Q. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

Q. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

(a) C. R. Das
(b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
(c) Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
(d) M. A. Jinnah

Correct Answer : (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

After the Chauri Chaura incident in 1922, many people were arrested and faced severe charges. Madan Mohan Malaviya played a prominent role in providing legal defense to the accused. He was assisted by Krishna Kant Malaviya in these efforts. Their legal expertise was crucial in the appeals to the High Court, where many death sentences were challenged, and they succeeded in securing acquittals for a significant number of individuals and reduced sentences for others.

Therefore, the correct option is (b) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant.

Q. Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident? Read More »

Q. The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

Q. The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

(a) carnelian
(b) clay
(c) bronze
(d) gold

Correct Answer : (c) bronze

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

The famous female figurine known as the ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of bronze. It was created using the lost-wax casting technique. This small statuette, approximately 10.8 centimeters (4.25 inches) tall, dates back to around 2500 BC.

Q. The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of Read More »

Q. “Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

Q. “Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

(a) the Champaran Satyagraha
(b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
(c) attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
(d) the launch of the Quit India Movement

Correct Answer : (b) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

The famous statement “Sedition has become my religion” was given by Mahatma Gandhi at the time of publicly violating the Salt Law at Dandi.

While Gandhi was charged with sedition for his writings in “Young India” in 1922, the specific declaration “Sedition has become my religion” is strongly associated with his defiance of the British Salt Law during the Dandi March in 1930. This act of civil disobedience was a direct and public challenge to the unjust laws imposed by the British government, which he considered a moral and spiritual duty.

Q. “Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of Read More »

Q. Consider the following activities : I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products IV. Production of natural gas

Q. Consider the following activities :
I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All the four

Correct Answer : (b) Only two

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is a statutory body in India established under the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. Its primary role is to regulate the downstream activities in the petroleum and natural gas sector.

I. Production of crude oil:

  • The PNGRB Act specifically excludes the production of crude oil and natural gas from its regulatory purview.
  • This activity falls under the upstream sector, typically regulated by the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH) under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum:

  • The PNGRB is mandated to regulate the refining, processing, storage, transportation, and distribution of petroleum and petroleum products.

III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products:

  • The PNGRB regulates the marketing and sale of petroleum products.

IV. Production of natural gas:

  • Similar to crude oil production, the production of natural gas is excluded from the PNGRB’s regulatory scope.

Conclusion: Only activities II and III are regulated by the PNGRB.

Final answer: (b) Only two

Q. Consider the following activities : I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products IV. Production of natural gas Read More »

Q. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court

Q. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements :

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer : (d) I, II and III

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.

  • This statement is correct.
  • Article 361(1) of the Indian Constitution explicitly states that the President or the Governor of a State “shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.”

II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.

  • This statement is correct.
  • Article 361(2) of the Indian Constitution provides that “No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office.”

III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

  • This statement is correct.
  • Article 194(2) of the Indian Constitution states that “No member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the Legislature or any committee thereof.”

Conclusion: All three statements are correct.

Final answer: (d) I, II and III

Q. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court Read More »

Q. With reference to India, consider the following pairs : Organization : Union Ministry

Q. With reference to India, consider the following pairs :
Organization : Union Ministry

I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Correct Answer : (d) None

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

I. The National Automotive Board : Ministry of Commerce and Industry

  • The National Automotive Board (NAB) functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries.
  • Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.

II. The Coir Board : Ministry of Heavy Industries

  • The Coir Board functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME).
  • Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.

III. The National Centre for Trade Information : Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

  • The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) was set up under the aegis of the Department of Commerce, Ministry of Commerce & Industry.
  • Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.

Conclusion: Based on the analysis, none of the given pairs are correctly matched.

Q. With reference to India, consider the following pairs : Organization : Union Ministry Read More »

Q. Consider the following pairs : Provision in the Constitution of India Stated under I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in th

Q. Consider the following pairs :

Provision in the Constitution of India : Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Correct Answer : (c) All the three

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State : The Directive Principles of the State Policy

  • Article 50 of the Indian Constitution states: “The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.”
  • This Article falls under Part IV of the Constitution, which deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP).
  • Therefore, this pair is correctly matched.

II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture : The Fundamental Duties

  • Article 51A(f) of the Indian Constitution, which lists the Fundamental Duties, states that it shall be the duty of every citizen “to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.”
  • Fundamental Duties are enshrined in Part IV-A of the Constitution.
  • Therefore, this pair is correctly matched.

III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories : The Fundamental Rights

  • Article 24 of the Indian Constitution states: “No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment.”
  • Article 24 is part of Part III of the Constitution, which deals with Fundamental Rights (specifically, the Right Against Exploitation).
  • Therefore, this pair is correctly matched.

Conclusion: All three pairs are correctly matched.

Final answer: All the three

Q. Consider the following pairs : Provision in the Constitution of India Stated under I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in th Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements : I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.

Q. Consider the following statements :

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer : (a) I only

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

I. Discretionary Powers of the Governor

The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. This statement is correct.

  • Article 163(1) of the Indian Constitution states: There shall be a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor, “except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion.”
  • This provision clearly outlines the existence of discretionary powers for the Governor.

Examples of such discretionary powers include:

  • Reserving a bill for the President’s consideration
  • Recommending President’s Rule
  • Appointing a Chief Minister in a hung assembly

II. Reservation of State Bills for President’s Consideration

The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. This statement is incorrect.

  • Articles 200 and 201 of the Indian Constitution govern the process of a state bill being presented for the President’s consideration.
  • Article 200: A bill passed by a State Legislature is first presented to the Governor, who may:
    • Assent to it
    • Withhold assent
    • Reserve it for the consideration of the President
  • Article 201: The President’s role begins “When a Bill is reserved by a Governor for the consideration of the President.”
  • Therefore, the President does not suo motu (of his/her own initiative) reserve a state bill; it must be forwarded by the Governor.

Q. Consider the following statements : I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. Read More »

Q. How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

Q. With reference to India, consider the following :
I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Correct Answer : (a) Only one

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

I. Inter-State Council

– Established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India.

The President may establish this Council to:

– Inquire into and advise upon disputes between States
– Investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between States or between the Union and States
– Make recommendations for better coordination of policy and action

II. National Security Council

– Executive body established in 1998 by the Government of India.
– Not a constitutional body; set up through an executive resolution.

III. Zonal Councils

– Statutory bodies established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
– Five Zonal Councils: Northern, Central, Eastern, Western, and Southern.

Conclusion:
Only the Inter-State Council is established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India.

Q. How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India? Read More »

Q. Consider the following pairs : State Description I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks

Q. Consider the following pairs :
State : Description

I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland : The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura : Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Correct Answer : (c) All the three

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

I. Arunachal Pradesh: The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks

– Capital named after a fort: Itanagar, the capital of Arunachal Pradesh, is named after the Ita Fort, which literally means “Fort of Bricks” in Assamese.

– Two National Parks: Arunachal Pradesh has two National Parks: Mouling National Park and Namdapha National Park.

This pair is correctly matched.

II. Nagaland: The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act

– Nagaland was formally inaugurated as a state on December 1, 1963. Its creation was based on the State of Nagaland Act, 1962, passed by the Parliament.

– Simultaneously, the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962, was enacted. This amendment inserted Article 371A into the Constitution, providing special provisions for Nagaland, which was crucial in facilitating the creation and defining the special administrative setup for the new state.

This pair is correctly matched.

III. Tripura: Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

– Initially a Part ‘C’ State: After merging with the Indian Union on October 15, 1949, Tripura became a Part ‘C’ state.

– Centrally administered territory with reorganization in 1956: With the reorganization of states in November 1956, Tripura became a Union Territory. Part C states were administered by a Chief Commissioner appointed by the President.

– Later attained the status of a full-fledged State: Tripura attained the status of a full-fledged state on January 21, 1972, by the North Eastern Areas (Reorganization) Act, 1971.

All three pairs are correctly matched.

Q. Consider the following pairs : State Description I. Arunachal Pradesh : The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks Read More »