Prelims 2025 GS Solution

Q. Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores.

Q. Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores.

Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.
II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.
III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer: (d) I, II and III

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

The key fiscal‐deficit concepts are:

  1. Revenue deficit = Revenue expenditure − Revenue receipts
  2. Fiscal deficit = Total expenditure − (Revenue receipts + Non‐debt capital receipts) = Government borrowings
  3. Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit − Interest payments

Given: • Revenue expenditure = ₹80,000 cr • Revenue receipts = ₹60,000 cr • Borrowings = ₹10,000 cr • Interest payments = ₹6,000 cr

I. Revenue deficit = 80,000 − 60,000 = 20,000 cr ✔

II. Fiscal deficit = Borrowings = 10,000 cr ✔ (Or equivalently, Total outlays 80,000 − Receipts 60,000 = 20,000; if 10,000 is met by non‐debt capital receipts, the remaining 10,000 is financed by fresh borrowings.)

III. Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit − Interest payments = 10,000 − 6,000 = 4,000 cr ✔

Hence all three statements are correct.

Answer: (d) I, II and III.

Q. Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. Read More »

Q. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

Q. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

(a) The European Union
(b) The World Bank
(c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) was enacted by The European Union (EU). This law is a key element of the EU Biodiversity Strategy for 2030, which is part of the European Green Deal, and aims to reverse the degradation of ecosystems and the loss of biodiversity in Europe. It sets legally binding targets for EU Member States to restore at least 20% of the EU’s land and sea areas by 2030, with the goal of having all ecosystems in need of restoration fully restored by 2050.

Q. Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss? Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements : Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for

Q. Consider the following statements :
Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
Statement II : In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.

This statement is incorrect.

Section 15 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act, 1957) explicitly empowers State Governments to make rules for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases, or other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. This means that the regulation and grant of concessions for minor minerals fall entirely within the legislative and administrative domain of the State Governments.

Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

This statement is correct.

Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, 1957, defines “minor minerals” to include building stones, gravel, ordinary clay, ordinary sand, and “any other mineral which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare to be a minor mineral.” This clearly grants the Central Government the authority to classify and notify minerals as ‘minor minerals’.

Conclusion: Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct. The final answer is d.

Q. Consider the following statements : Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements : I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People

Q. Consider the following statements :
I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

Analysis of Statement I: “If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.”

  • The 10th Schedule (Anti-defection Law) deals with disqualification on grounds of defection.
  • If a question arises regarding disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the decision is referred to the Chairman (for Rajya Sabha) or the Speaker (for Lok Sabha) of such House, and their decision is final (though subject to judicial review).
  • The President’s role in disqualification is primarily under Article 103, which deals with disqualifications mentioned in Article 102 (e.g., holding an office of profit, unsound mind, not being a citizen). In such cases, the President’s decision is final, but only after obtaining the opinion of the Election Commission and acting according to that opinion, not the Council of Union Ministers.

Therefore, Statement I is incorrect because the deciding authority for 10th Schedule disqualifications is the Speaker/Chairman, not the President, and even for Article 102 disqualifications, the President acts on the Election Commission’s advice, not the Council of Union Ministers.

Analysis of Statement II: “There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.”

  • The word ‘political party’ is mentioned in the Constitution of India.
  • Specifically, the Tenth Schedule (Anti-defection Law), added by the 52nd Amendment Act in 1985, explicitly uses the term ‘political party’ multiple times.
  • Before the 52nd Amendment, the term ‘political party’ was not recognized in the Constitution, but its introduction with the Anti-defection law gave political parties constitutional recognition.

Therefore, Statement II is incorrect.

Q. Consider the following statements : I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements : I. On the dissolution of the House of the People,

Q. Consider the following statements :
I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.

II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.

III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer : (c) I and III only

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

Statement I.  This statement is correct.

Article 94 of the Constitution of India explicitly states that whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate their office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. This provision ensures the continuity of the office of the Speaker.

Statement II. This statement is incorrect.

There is no constitutional provision in India that mandates the Speaker to resign from their political party upon election. While it is a convention in some parliamentary democracies (like the UK) to ensure impartiality, it is not a constitutional requirement in India. In practice, the Speaker in India often does not resign from their party membership.

Statement III. This statement is correct.

Article 94(c) of the Constitution of India outlines the procedure for the removal of the Speaker. It states that the Speaker may be removed by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then members of the House, and no such resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Q. Consider the following statements : I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India :

Q. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India :

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) Both I and II
(d) Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: (a) I only

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

Statement I is correct: The Supreme Court of India has held that the President’s pardoning power, while broad, is not absolute and can be subjected to limited judicial review to prevent arbitrary, irrational, mala fide, or irrelevant exercise. Cases like Maru Ram v. Union of India (1981) and Kehar Singh v. Union of India (1988) affirm this, focusing on procedural fairness rather than merits.

Statement II is incorrect: The President cannot exercise pardoning power independently and must act on the advice of the Council of Ministers as per Article 74 of the Constitution. The Supreme Court has upheld this principle.

Therefore, only statement I is correct.

Q. Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India : Read More »

Q. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

Q. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide
(b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide
(c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate
(d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Correct Answer: (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

Artificial rainfall (cloud seeding) is achieved by dispersing fine particles of ice-nucleating agents into supercooled clouds. Silver iodide (AgI) has a crystal structure similar to ice and thus serves as an effective nucleus for ice-crystal formation at temperatures below 0 °C. Potassium iodide (KI), when used in conjunction with AgI, enhances the dispersion and stability of the seeding material. Once introduced into the cloud layer—typically by aircraft or ground-based flares—these particles induce the formation of ice crystals. As the crystals grow and fall, they melt into raindrops in warmer layers below, producing precipitation that scavenges airborne pollutants and clears the atmosphere.

Q. Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of Read More »

Q. With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs :

Q. With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs :

Aircraft type : Description
I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globemaster III : Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

Correct Answer: (b) Only two

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

I. Dornier-228: Maritime patrol aircraft The Dornier-228 is indeed used by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard primarily for maritime surveillance, reconnaissance, and patrol missions. Thus, this pair is correctly matched.

II. IL-76: Supersonic combat aircraft The IL-76 is a strategic airlift aircraft of Russian origin, used by the Indian Air Force primarily for transport, logistics, and aerial refueling roles. It is not a supersonic combat aircraft. Thus, this pair is incorrectly matched.

III. C-17 Globemaster III: Military transport aircraft The C-17 Globemaster III is a large, strategic military transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force for rapid strategic airlift of troops and cargo. Thus, this pair is correctly matched.

Hence, two pairs (I and III) are correctly matched.

Q. With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs : Read More »

Q. How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

Q. Consider the following space missions :

I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan

How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All the three
(d) None

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

Axiom-4: This mission is set to conduct numerous micro-gravity research experiments. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has shortlisted seven microgravity research experiments for Axiom-4, covering fields such as human health, material sciences, biotechnology, and agriculture. These experiments are expected to foster a microgravity research ecosystem in India.

SpaDeX: Primarily a space docking experiment, SpaDeX has also provided opportunities for microgravity research. It carried payloads for experiments, including a study of plant growth under microgravity, with cowpea seeds successfully germinating in space. The docking technology demonstrated by SpaDeX is essential for India’s future space station, critical for microgravity experiments.

Gaganyaan: India’s human spaceflight program, Gaganyaan, is designed to encourage and support microgravity research. ISRO plans to perform biological and physical science experiments related to microgravity during the mission. There is collaboration between the Department of Biotechnology and ISRO focused on space biotechnology research with emphasis on microgravity for Gaganyaan.

Therefore, all three missions encourage and support microgravity research.

Q. How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research? Read More »

Q. Consider the following statements : I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.

Q. Consider the following statements :

I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.
II. ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.
III. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only
(b) II and III only
(c) I and III only
(d) I, II and III

Correct Answer: (a) I and II only

UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper's Solution

Explanation : 

Statement I: Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.

  • The National Rail Plan (NRP) prepared by Indian Railways aims to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2030, not 2028. The plan also envisions catering to demand up to 2050.
  • Therefore, Statement I is incorrect.

Statement II: ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.

  • ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system developed indigenously by Indian Railways’ Research Designs & Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with Indian industries such as Medha Servo Drives, Kernex Microsystems, and HBL Power Systems.
    While global companies like Germany’s Siemens have been approved to install Kavach, the development itself was indigenous.
  • Therefore, Statement II is incorrect.

Statement III: ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

  • The Kavach system utilizes Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tags fitted on the tracks and read by RFID readers on locomotives to determine the train’s precise location.
  • RFID tags are installed throughout the track length and are strategically placed along the tracks, including station sections.
  • The statement does not claim RFID tags are only fitted in station sections.
    Therefore, Statement III is correct.

Based on the analysis:

Statement I is incorrect.
Statement II is incorrect.
Statement III is correct.
The question asks for the statements that are not correct.
Final answer: (a) I and II only.

Q. Consider the following statements : I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028. Read More »