Correct answer: d) Only 2

Explanation:
The Workers and Peasants Party (WPP) was formed in different states around 1926 – 1927, but it was not until December 1928 that it took the shape of an All India Organisation. Therefore, the first statement is incorrect.

The second statement is correct that the party’s objective to work within the Indian National Congress to promote a more revolutionary approach and represent common people.

Thus, the correct answer is: d) Only 2

Correct Answer: d) 1, 2, 3, 4.

Explanation: 

1. East India Association – Founded in 1866 by Dadabhai Naoroji in London.

2. National Indian Association – Established in 1870 by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan to promote social and political awareness among Indians.

3. Indian Society – Formed in 1867, primarily by Indian students in London, aimed at discussing Indian issues and advocating for Indian interests.

4. Indian Association – Founded in 1876 in Kolkata, it played a significant role in the early nationalist movement.

Thus, the correct answer is: d) 1, 2, 3, 4.

Correct Answer: c) Only 1

Explanation: The Age of Consent Act, 1891, was a significant social reform legislation in colonial India. It raised the age of consent for sexual intercourse for girls from 10 to 12 years. This Act was primarily advocated by Behramji Malabari, a Parsi reformer from Bombay, who was deeply concerned about the plight of young girls subjected to early marriages and consummation. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

However, the Act faced opposition from certain sections of Indian society, including the extremist wing of the Indian National Congress led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak. They viewed this legislation as an interference in Indian traditions and culture by the British colonial government. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.

Thus, the correct answer is c) Only 1.

Correct Answer: a) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

The Justice Party was a political organization in the Madras Presidency during the early 20th century. It played a significant role in the social and political history of South India, particularly in opposing Brahmin dominance in politics and administration.

1. Statement 1: The Justice Party opposed Congress by calling it a Brahmin dominated organisation.

– This statement is correct. The Justice Party was formed primarily by non-Brahmin elites who felt that the Indian National Congress was dominated by Brahmins and did not adequately represent the interests of non-Brahmins. The party sought to challenge the social and political dominance of Brahmins in the Madras Presidency.

2. Statement 2: It claimed the same communal representation for non-Brahmins as the Morley-Minto reforms had given to Muslims.

– This statement is also correct. The Justice Party demanded communal representation for non-Brahmins in government services and legislative bodies, similar to the separate electorates and communal representation granted to Muslims under the Morley-Minto reforms of 1909. This demand was part of their broader agenda to secure political and social rights for non-Brahmins.

Thus, both statements are correct, and the correct answer is a) Both 1 and 2.

Correct Answer: a) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Scientific investigation depends on commitment to practical ideals.

– This statement is correct because scientific investigation is guided by principles such as objectivity, rationality, and the pursuit of truth. These practical ideals ensure that scientific research is conducted systematically and yields reliable results.

2. Statement 2: Honesty is particularly important in science.

– This statement is also correct because honesty is a fundamental value in science. It ensures the integrity of data, findings, and conclusions. Without honesty, scientific progress would be undermined, as falsified or manipulated results could lead to incorrect theories and applications.

Thus, both statements are correct, making option a the right choice.

Correct Answer: d) 2 4 1 3

Explanation:

1. Simlipal: This biosphere reserve is located in the state of Odisha. It is known for its rich biodiversity and is a significant tiger reserve.

2. Nokrek: This biosphere reserve is situated in Meghalaya. It is famous for its unique ecosystem and is home to the rare red panda.

3. Agasthyamalai: This biosphere reserve is located in Kerala (and partly in Tamil Nadu). It is part of the Western Ghats and is known for its endemic flora and fauna.

4. Manas: This biosphere reserve is in Assam. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a Project Tiger reserve.

The correct sequence is 2, 4, 1, 3.

Final Answer: d) 2 4 1 3

Correct Answer: c) Number of species becomes small in ecological niche, if resources are sufficient.

Explanation: An ecological niche refers to the role and position a species has in its environment, including how it obtains resources, interacts with other organisms, and contributes to the ecosystem. Let us analyze each option:

a) Dominant species occupy extensive and broader ecological niche.

This is true. Dominant species often have a broader ecological niche because they are better adapted to utilize a wide range of resources and can outcompete other species.

b) Number of species becomes large in ecological niche of natural ecosystem, if resources are sufficient.

This is true. When resources are abundant and diverse, more species can coexist because competition is reduced, allowing for greater biodiversity.

c) Number of species becomes small in ecological niche, if resources are sufficient.

This is not true. If resources are sufficient, the number of species typically increases because there is less competition for limited resources, allowing more species to thrive. This statement contradicts ecological principles.

d) Dominance of single species becomes minimum if the resource distribution is equitable in a habitat.

This is true. When resources are distributed equitably, no single species can dominate the ecosystem, leading to a more balanced and diverse community.

Thus, the incorrect statement is c).

Correct Answer: d) 3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation:

1. Hemant Sen (c. 1095–1096 CE):

Hemant Sen is considered the founder of the Sen dynasty. He established the dynasty in Bengal after the decline of the Pala Empire. His rule was brief and primarily focused on consolidating power.

2. Vijaya Sen (c. 1096–1159 CE):

Vijaya Sen, the son of Hemant Sen, succeeded him and expanded the kingdom significantly. He is credited with defeating the Palas and establishing a stronghold over Bengal.

3. Ballal Sen (c. 1159–1179 CE):

Ballal Sen, the son of Vijaya Sen, is known for introducing the caste system in Bengal and for his contributions to literature and culture. He was a significant ruler of the dynasty.

4. Lakshman Sen (c. 1179–1206 CE):

Lakshman Sen, the son of Ballal Sen, was the last prominent ruler of the Sen dynasty. His reign saw the invasion of Bakhtiyar Khalji in 1204 CE, which led to the decline of the Sen dynasty and the rise of Muslim rule in Bengal.

3 (Hemant Sen: c. 1095–1096 CE), 4 (Vijaya Sen: c. 1096–1159 CE), 1 (Ballal Sen: c. 1159–1179 CE), 2 (Lakshman Sen: c. 1179–1206 CE)

Correct Answer: a) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

1. Statement 1: There are references of numerous river-ports in ancient India.

– This statement is correct. Ancient India had a well-developed system of trade, and rivers played a crucial role in facilitating inland trade. Numerous river-ports are mentioned in historical texts and inscriptions, such as those along the Ganga, Yamuna, Godavari, and other rivers. These ports served as hubs for the exchange of goods and connected inland regions with coastal areas.

2. Statement 2: There were large entrepots of goods and traffic.

– This statement is also correct. Ancient India had large entrepots (trading hubs) where goods from different regions were collected, stored, and redistributed. Cities like Pataliputra, Taxila, and Bharuch were prominent centers of trade. Coastal ports like Lothal (in the Indus Valley Civilization) and later ports like Tamralipti and Muziris served as major entrepots for international trade.

Thus, both statements are correct, and the answer is a) Both 1 and 2.

Correct Answer: a) 3 1 4 2

Explanation:

List-I and their corresponding organizations:

1. Human Development Report: This report is published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). So, A matches with 3.

2. World Economic Outlook: This report is published by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). So, B matches with 1.

3. World Investment Report: This report is published by the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD). So, C matches with 4.

4. Emissions Gap Report: This report is published by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP). So, D matches with 2.

Thus, the correct code is: a) 3 1 4 2