Prelims 2023 GS Solution

Q2. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:

Q2. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements:

1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.

With of the statements given above is/are correct?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

c. Both 1 and 2

What is Central Bank Digital Currencies (CBDCs) ?

CBDCs are digital versions of a country’s fiat currency, issued and controlled by the central bank. They can be used for transactions without involving the US dollar or the SWIFT system. The SWIFT system is an international network for financial messaging and communication between banks. CBDCs can potentially bypass this system, allowing for more direct transactions between countries and reducing reliance on the US dollar as the global reserve currency.

Digital Currency Programmability

A digital currency can be programmed with specific conditions, such as a time-frame for spending it. This is possible because digital currencies are built on blockchain technology, which allows for programmable money. Smart contracts can be used to define the conditions under which the digital currency can be spent, such as a specific time-frame or other criteria. This feature can be useful for various purposes, such as encouraging spending to stimulate the economy or targeting specific sectors for financial support.

Central Bank digital currencies - Digital Currency Programmability

Q2. With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: Read More »

Q96. Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.

Q96. Consider the following statements:

1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.

2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.

3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.

How many of the above statements are correct?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. All three
d. None

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

d. None

1. The acts done by the President before the date of the decision of the Supreme Court do not become invalid if the election of the President is declared void.

2. The election for the post of the President of India cannot be postponed on the ground that some legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.

3. The Constitution does not prescribe any time limit within which the President has to declare his/her assent when a Bill is presented to him/her.

Q96. Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. Read More »

Q95. Consider the following organization/bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

Q95. Consider the following organization/bodies in India:

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
3. The National Law Commission
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. All four

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

a. Only One

1. The National Commission for Backward Classes – This body is a constitutional body as per Article 338B of the Indian Constitution, which was added through the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018.

2. The National Human Rights Commission – This body is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory body established under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993.

3. The National Law Commission –  There is a Law Commission of India, which is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body. It is an ad-hoc and advisory body constituted by the Government of India from time to time.

4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission – This body is not a constitutional body. It is a statutory body established under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.

Q95. Consider the following organization/bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission Read More »

Q93. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?

Q93. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country?

a. It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
b. It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
c. It defines and limits the powers of government.
d. It secures social justice, social equality and social security.

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

c. It defines and limits the powers of government.

Purpose of a Constitution

The chief purpose of a constitution is to define and limit the powers of government. It establishes the structure, functions, and principles of a government, as well as the rights and responsibilities of its citizens. While a constitution may also serve other purposes, such as determining objectives for lawmaking, creating political offices, and securing social justice, its primary function is to provide a framework for governance and to ensure that government power is exercised within the bounds of the constitution. This helps to maintain a balance of power and prevent the abuse of authority.

Q93. Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the ‘Constitution’ of a country? Read More »

Q92. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Q92. Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.

Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
b. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
c. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
d. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

Correct Answer : a. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

In India, prisons are managed by State Governments, and each state has its own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. This is because prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894, which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments (now State Governments). Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I.
Prisons in India – Wikipedia

Q92. Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Read More »

Q90. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

Q90. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

a. The Regulating Act
b. The Pitt’s India Act
c. The Charter Act of 1793
d. The Charter Act of 1833

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

d. The Charter Act of 1833

Governor-General of India

Governor-General of Bengal was designated as the Governor-General of India by the Charter Act of 1833. This act centralized the British administration in India by consolidating the control of the British East India Company’s territories under a single authority. The Governor-General of India became the highest-ranking British official in India, responsible for directing and controlling all the company’s affairs in the country. This change in designation marked a crucial step in the process of establishing a centralized British administration in India.

Government of India Act 1833 – Wikipedia

Q90. By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of bengal designated as the Governor General of India? Read More »

Q89. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?

Q89. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?

a. Ahmad Shah
b. Mahmud Begarha
c. Bahadur Shah
d. Muhammad Shah

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

c. Bahadur Shah

Bahadur Shah

Bahadur Shah, the Sultan of Gujarat, surrendered Diu to the Portuguese in 1535. This occurred after the Portuguese helped Bahadur Shah defeat a combined force of Ottoman Turks and Egyptian Mamluks, who were attempting to take control of Diu. In return for their assistance, Bahadur Shah granted the Portuguese permission to build a fort on Diu, effectively giving them control of the territory.

Siege of Diu (1538) – Wikipedia

Q89. Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese? Read More »

Q88. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?

Q88. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?

a. Devaraya I
b. Mallikarjuna
c. Vira Vijaya
d. Virupaksha

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

a. Devaraya I

Devaraya I’s Water Supply Project

Devaraya I, who ruled the Vijayanagara Empire from 1406 to 1422, constructed a large dam across the Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometers long from the river to the capital city. This project was undertaken to provide water to the capital and its surrounding areas, ensuring a stable water supply for agriculture and the urban population.

The Vijayanagara Empire was ruled by Devaraya I from 1406 to 1422. He undertook a significant water supply project, which involved the construction of a large dam across the Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct to provide water to the capital city and its surrounding areas. This project was crucial for ensuring a stable water supply for agriculture and the urban population.

Q88. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city? Read More »

Q87. “Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious cects.”

Q87. “Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects.”

The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancients India?
a. Buddhism
b. Jainism
c. Shaivism
d. Vaishnavism

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

b. Jainism

Jainism

The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of Jainism. Jainism is an ancient Indian religion that emphasizes non-violence and the belief that everything in the universe has a soul or life force (called jiva). This includes not only animals and plants but also rocks, water, and other natural objects. Jainism teaches that all living beings, regardless of their size or form, should be respected and not harmed, as they all possess souls.

Q87. “Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious cects.” Read More »

Q85. Consider the following dynasties: 1. Hoysala 2. Gahadavala 3. Kakatiya 4. Yadava

Q85. Consider the following dynasties:
1. Hoysala
2. Gahadavala
3. Kakatiya
4. Yadava

How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?
a. Only one
b. Only two
c. Only three
d. None

Question from UPSC Prelims 2023 GS Paper

Explanation : 

d. None

Dynasties in Early Medieval India

  • 1. Hoysala Dynasty: The Hoysala dynasty ruled parts of present-day Karnataka, India, from around the 10th to the 14th century AD.
  • 2. Gahadavala Dynasty: The Gahadavala dynasty ruled the region of present-day Uttar Pradesh, India, from the late 11th to the 12th century AD.
  • 3. Kakatiya Dynasty: The Kakatiya dynasty ruled parts of present-day Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, India, from the 12th to the 14th century AD.
  • 4. Yadava Dynasty: The Yadava dynasty, also known as the Seuna dynasty, ruled parts of present-day Maharashtra and Karnataka, India, from the late 9th to the early 14th century AD.

Q85. Consider the following dynasties: 1. Hoysala 2. Gahadavala 3. Kakatiya 4. Yadava Read More »